Earlier quoted context omitted.
> I always thought that the incompleteness theorems says, there are theorems that are true or false in all models but cannot be proved to be so. As the GP points out, that's not what Godel's incompleteness theorem actually shows. Although it's a common misconception (one which unfortunately is propagated by many sources that should know better). The key point of the incompleteness theorem is that it shows that (at le…
I think you’re right that "true in all models but unprovable" is not accurate. By Godel’s completeness theorem if a FO sentence is true in every model of the axioms then it is provable from those axioms. But I don’t think incompleteness is best described as saying "no first-order axioms can pin down a single model" That’s more about non-categoricity/compactness/Lowenheim–Skolem.
As I understand it, the proof of the Lowenheim-Skolem theorem requires the axiom of choice, but the proof of the two Godel theorems does not. That would make a difference for people who are doubtful about the axiom of choice.