Earlier quoted context omitted.
Why does the US, a society with low union membership rates have much higher median salaries both before and after taxes and government benefits than in Europe where there are lots of powerful unions? https://data.oecd.org/hha/household-disposable-income.htm
Are you subtracting wages lost to both employer AND employee contributions to health insurance, co-pays and the like? That's the only way it's a fair comparison. Hell, even if we do earn more after accounting for that, living in a society with universal healthcare is worth something all it's own.
"Information is also presented including social transfers in kind, such as health or education provided for free or at reduced prices by governments and not-for-profit organisations."