Earlier quoted context omitted.
> If React didn't have an explicit patent grant then there would be an implicit grant which does not have any retaliation clauses, and cannot be revoked. I'm not a lawyer. My understanding is that this is hypothetically possible but stands on shaky legal ground and has no legal precedent. Whether or not an implicit grant exists seems to depend on who you ask. This is apparently why GPLv3 includes an explicit grant. I…
If React doesn't have any patents then Facebook could solve this issue by removing the "grant" or by removing the strong retaliation clause from the "grant". I am not a lawyer either, but I think the idea of implicit grant is compatible with common sense.
> Wherever possible, make sure you have an explicit license to any necessary patents held by the licensor.
Then it goes on to distinguish between weak and strong grants.
I think you mean weak, not implicit. AFAICT, there isn't an implicit grant with patent law, because the default is that you're infringing without an explicit grant.