Earlier quoted context omitted.
(TL;DR: I believe the term is being used both proscriptively and descriptively, and that is the heart of the problem) > One group yells "women belong in the kitchen; blacks are inferior" or whatever. I, and even most conservatives, would have absolutely no problem calling that racism or sexism. Those are overt, direct statements meeting the popular definitions of those terms. I am assuming we are debating the more ex…
> I agree, as long as it can be established that it does indeed have a useful purpose as a descriptive term. But it does. The definition has become more refined in order to be more useful. This is commonly done in science. > You are surely aware that one fashionable definition of racism, with some academic support, is that it is equivalent to power or privilege, and therefore no member of a disadvantaged group can be…
The top 1% is general perceived as having most power in society as a single group, and much more than white skinned people counted as one group. Individuals of the top 1% has significant more power than the average individual of people with white skin.
Then we have politicians and CEO's, which as a group has power somewhere in the middle between the previous two when counted as one group, but as individuals might very much have more power in average than anyone of the top 1%.
We also got convicted criminals that by law, are made powerless and removed from the voting pool. Surely they as a group holds no power to perpetuate an unfair distribution of power.
If we want to keep the definition of "discrimination plus power", what amount of power and how do we measure it? How do we measure a groups ability to be vessels for social dynamics? Do we only count the quantity of power, or the average power per individual?