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Why English doesn't use accents

deadlanguagesociety.com

471–480 of 615 posts

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#471
post #60

Earlier quoted context omitted.

As a non native, it still bothers me how "toward" is pronounced, "toord", really?

‘W’ started out as a long ‘U’ so it’s not unreasonable

It was spelled as a double U originally (hence the name), but that doesn't mean that it was pronounced as a long U! It was always an approximant.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#472
post #412
post #303

I strongly disagree that "it's a shame" that English does not use diacritics. English is my second language (third maybe, considering that the country of my birth is bilingual), and is my favorite language to read and to write. I tried to learn French for two years and stopped, and all those excessive writing marks were among the reasons. God bless all those monks who decided to keep English writing clean.

You can always tell someone who is well read in English when they mispronounce everything they say. Greek is so much easier than English to pronounce words correctly.

Coming from Spanish, with just the right diacritics to make pronunciation obvious, at first I didn't get the concept of a "Spelling Bee". Did it involve something besides spelling? Did "Bee" was a metaphor for the actual hard part of it?

I was first exposed to written English, so after trying conversational English, I learned why its pronunciation/writing is a national competition. It might as well be random.

English would have benefited a great deal from an equivalent to the Royal Spanish Academy.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#473

Earlier quoted context omitted.

- English - /ˈɪŋ(ɡ)lɪʃ/ - engage - /ɪnˈɡeɪd͡ʒ/, /ɛnˈɡeɪd͡ʒ/ - engorge - /ɪnˈɡɔːdʒ/ - engross - /ɪnˈɡɹəʊs/, /ɪŋˈɡɹəʊs/, /ɛnˈɡɹoʊs/, /ɛŋˈɡɹoʊs/ - engulf - /ɪŋˈɡʌlf/ According to Wiktionary only engulf and engross also use /ŋ/.

I've never heard engulf pronounced similarly to English

The stress is on a different syllable so it's kinda pointless to compare.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#474
post #68

Earlier quoted context omitted.

[flagged]

All languages have inconsistencies, but it seems in vogue these days to single out english and use it as a punching bag. Furthermore, no natural human languages (i.e. not artificially constructed ones like esperanto) are logical. They all have irregularities and illogical aspects. It is not "beyond fucked" that things have different pronunciations sometimes. Other languages have problems for people who solely learn b…

English is singled out because its orthography really is atrociously bad even when compared with other languages.

https://arxiv.org/pdf/1912.13321

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#475

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Why do you describe it as dialect of French? Did I? I mentioned dialects in France, not of French, IIRC. I'm nitpicking because, TBH, I quite likely just read too much into your use of "astounded" in your original comment. It seemed to me that you were overestimating how prevalent or significant these languages were. By the mid-20th century, they were already quite less popular and even less so by the time Malevil…

When is something a dialect in France and when is it a language in France? > It seemed to me that you were overestimating how prevalent or significant these languages were. I said I was in sixth grade , a kid living in the US. I didn't even know then there was more than one Romance language in Italy - as I alluded to in my original comment. Yes, I now, decades later, know more. But I was sharing my childhood misappre…

My bad for nitpicking. Sorry.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#476

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Yes, and how do those entirely true observations connect to the non-use of diacritics in English? I pointed out the ship example from the text, which was used to demonstrate how "this early French influence over English, which arose from the Norman Conquest, is the beginning of the reason why English is written without accent marks. ... This was the French habit that the Normans brought to England: the use of extra l…

> "is the beginning of the reason why English is written without accent marks" > sh, th, ee, oo, ou That's cool 'n all, but I believe that only applies to French writing in English for English people. Many languages have combinations of letters that have a single sound, it's no excuse for not having accents. In German one can write strasse and straße or müller and mueller (different writing, same sound). They too don…

> Many languages have combinations of letters that have a single sound, it's no excuse for not having accents.

You don't need an "excuse" for not having accents. Digraphs and diacritical marks are simply two different ways to mark a letter as being pronounced as "somewhat similar but different". Whether one is better than the other is a matter of subjective perception, and it's very common for languages to not do it consistently. For example, Spanish has "ll" but also "ñ" (ironically the latter used to be "nn"!), and Czech has "č" but also "ch".

What's criminal about English is not the lack of diacritics, but rather the extremely convoluted and hard to predict rules for interpreting digraphs and trigraphs. If "ch" always meant the same thing, it would be just fine.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#477
post #3

Clearly the early scribes were looking forward to the 7-bit ASCII code and needed to reduce the number of characters that were represented.

If you go early enough, my understanding is that people would write accents in ascii by doing: e ' Which was called "overstriking".

This comes from typewriters. Curiously, the reason why Esperanto uses Ĉ, Ĝ, Ĥ, Ĵ, and Ŝ is because the circumflex was present on French typewriters (which were very common in Europe at the time). Even though French itself only uses it for Â, Ê, Û - since it was a distinct key used for overtyping, it could be repurposed in this manner, just like Unicode combining marks today.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#478
post #31

French.. you people have no idea how Italy is. I speak differently than my brothers because I grew up at my grandparents 3 MILES! away and if I go to my family restaurant 2 MILES the other direction there is a different accent again, and I mean different words too not just the sound. Where I used to go to school 10 miles away they don't understand if I speak my dialect because it's a different region. The whole Italy…

You think that's bad, visit your friends to the East in Slovenia. You'd think they're doing it on purpose! How do so few people in such a small area make so many variations in the "same" language?

Generally speaking, countries that have a lot of different ethnic groups and/or introduced universal education relatively late tend to be those with more diverse dialects. Think about it: in a world without newspapers and TV, where most people live their entire lives in the same village they have been born in, and relatively few travelers, any linguistic innovation that appears in one place is going to take a very long time to travel elsewhere. Thus, local dialects tend to diverge. Universal school education slows this down by introducing a standard literary language (and, historically, often in a very forcible way). Mass media, TV especially, leads to further homogenization.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#479

Earlier quoted context omitted.

In 6th grade, so back in 1982, I read the French SF novel "Malevil". I was astounded (speaking as a US kid here), to learn that French people born and raised in France didn't natively speak French, but instead learned their regional language. Here is an example, from https://archive.org/details/malevilmerl00merl/page/150/mode/... : > And besides, Thomas was already quite isolated enough as it was: by his youth, by hi…

IIRC in the early 1900s, coercive methods were used to stop children speaking their native regional languages, a lot of it in school. In my region of Brittany (France) the most famous example that was on posters detailing good manners would say : "Il est interdit de parler breton et de cracher par terre" meaning "It's forbidden to speak Breton and to spit on the ground", placing both on the same level.

Stamping out minority languages and dialects was (and often still is) unfortunately common in most countries. I'm Russian, and my native regional dialect has some minor differences from standard Russian that make it sound a bit more like Belarusian. I remember how in school we had a teacher making fun of our manner of pronouncing words as "kolkhoznik speech" (implying that only the uneducated speak like that). This was in 1990s.

Re: Why English doesn't use accents

#480
post #8

The Economist magazine uses a diæresis (two dots) in words like “coöperate” and “reëlect” to indicate that both vowels are pronounced separately, rather than as a diphthong. This is considered old-school and uncommon though.

Oh interesting, I've never seen those cases. I'd say it's more common (although maybe still a little old-school?) to use it in words like Noël or Chloë.

The difference is whether the sequence of vowels crosses the morpheme boundary or not. When it does, as in "cooperate", it's usually readily obvious to native speakers even when seeing the word for the first time, thus they don't need a mark to disambiguate.
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