Earlier quoted context omitted.
"Kind of free?" Are you kidding me? The absolutely laughable claim above was that women were not to be blamed for the electoral victories of Nazis. The fact that at least 80% of German women in Czechoslovakia voted for Nazis in free elections demolishes that absurdity.
Ok, apparently I can't stop... Source to the claim that elections in 1938, those we are talking about were not free: https://web.archive.org/web/20111110054101/http://www.uni-du... And yes, a difference of 20% is quite significant. Also, German citizens enabled the Nazi, no doubt about that. The situation in Czechoslovakia in 1938 is different: - the Sudetenland was dominated by a German minority, that German candida…
> the Sudetenland was dominated by a German minority, that German candidates fare better among German voters is not a big surprise
Ah, so they had to vote for the Nazi.
> joining Germany wasn't an unpopular policy, not in Austria nor in the Sudetenland, that a party favouring that policy does well during elections isn't a big surprise neither
Ah, I see. "That doesn't count because it was popular." I assume you must also be an apologist for illegal Russian annexation of parts of Ukraine as well?
> those elections envolved a lot of intimidation to vote for the SdP, that means better results for the SdP
Yes, so many years after comparably free German elections, Nazis got even more votes in a country with less previous Nazi influence, and that means that these vastly higher results (2x or so?) were due to "intimidation".
> Just one question, what is it with you trying to pin those Henlein election results on women?
I'm not "pinning the results on women". I'm pinning them on all Germans who voted that way, which does not exclude German women as some kind of a group repressed by some "male loserdom", as claimed above. They were complicit in it to pretty much same degree as the male part of the population.