Earlier quoted context omitted.
Not necessarily mutually exclusive no, mathematically I'd say they are inversely proportional, hard to disagree with that no?
I think you're overestimating the marginal cost of doing one of them after you've already done the other. If a company has a bunch of ad-buying customers and a bunch of transparent ads, putting together some work to make a bunch of opaque ones for the exact same customers is not necessarily going to be that hard. I don't see how you can claim that it's mathematically guaranteed that the number of customers who decide…
First that i should have said correlated rather than proportional.
Second that even if there's an inverse influence, there's also a positive influence between both forms of advertisement.
But in terms of proportion I still maintain that if you eliminate one type of advertisement the ratio will become 100% of the other, which is as undeniable as it is tautological.