Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
361–370 of 570 posts
Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#362> The second commit message versus the first is the difference between a defensible authorship claim and a clean “Claude wrote this” record.
That makes no sense to me, as the commit message is probably LLM generated as well. (and even easier to generate as it doesn't have to compile or pass automated tests).
Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#363Could you please stop posting generated comments to HN? It's not allowed here, and it looks like you've done it over 30 times already. (Of course, there's no way to be certain of this, but it's what our software thinks, and the overall pattern is pretty convincing.) See https://news.ycombinator.com/newsguidelines.html#generated and https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=47340079
You are definitely right to flag it, apologize for that. I used an AI assistant for the replies, and I will make sure not to use one going forward.
Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#364Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#365Earlier quoted context omitted.
> When I write code, what I write and how I write it is informed by having read countless source code files over my education and my career. Just as I ingest all that experience to fine-tune how my later code is written, so does the LLM from the code it's seen. You are presumably human. We have granted humans specific exemptions in copyright law. We have not granted that to LLMs. Why are we so eager to?
I'm not sure where in our lawbooks there are laws that specifically target humans to the exclusion of human-operated tools. There's also a TON of irony here. What an about face it is, for the community at large* to switch from "information wants to be free, we support copyleft and FOSS" to leaning so heavily on an incredibly conservative reading of IP law.
It doesn't need to. Laws are for humans.
Laws don't give rights to chainsaws. Or lawnmowers. Or kitchen knives, hammers, screwdrivers, and spades.
You can't use any of those to commit a crime and then claim that the law specifically did not exclude those tools.
Why are you seemingly in favour of carving out an exemption for LLMs?
Laws are for humans.
Arguing that the law did not specifically address "intentionally killing a person by tickling them till they died" means that you found a loophole which can be used to kill people is...
well, it's in the "not even wrong" category...
Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#366Earlier quoted context omitted.
No, that human owns the copyright on the prompt, not on the work product.
If that were true, a developer may own copyright over the source code, but nothing on the compiled binaries, and I could download practically all software available as compiled binaries and use for free.
Compilation and translation happen in a generic manner and does not rely on a mountain of other IP, it is really just a transformative tool that happens to do something useful, someone constructed it to be a very precise translation to the point that any mistakes in it are called bugs and we fix them to ensure the process stays deterministic. Translators try hard to 'get it right' too: to affect the intentions of the original author as little as possible.
When you use a model loaded up with noise or that you have trained exclusively on code that you actually wrote I think a strong case could be made that you own the copyright on that work product. But when you train that model on other people's work, especially without their consent or use a model that has been trained in that way you lose your right to call the output of that model yours.
You did not write it, and the transformative process requires terabytes of other people's IP and only a little bit by you.
As soon as you can prove that your contribution substantially outweighs the amount of IP contributed in total you would have a much stronger case.
Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#367Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#368Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#369Re: Who owns the code Claude Code wrote?
#370Earlier quoted context omitted.
If that were true, a developer may own copyright over the source code, but nothing on the compiled binaries, and I could download practically all software available as compiled binaries and use for free.
Indeed a developer owns copyright over the source code and on the compiled binaries, because there is no expansion happening here but just a translation from one format into another, the kind of thing that has been ruled copyrightable since copyright exists. The same goes for translations from one human language into another, and anybody with knowledge of more than one language will be happy to acknowledge that trans…
Adding two subtle points:
>> Indeed a developer owns copyright over the source code and on the compiled binaries, because there is no expansion happening here but just a translation from one format into another ... does not rely on a mountain of other IP
... and, the license agreement of the compiler and libraries used / linked to practically always explicitly waive copyrights over the said non-mountain of IP.
>> As soon as you can prove that your contribution substantially outweighs the amount of IP contributed in total you would have a much stronger case.
... a much stronger case that you have a partial copyright over the work, which is now likely a derivative work. You still may not have a case that you own the copyright exclusively (or as the original article says, that your employer does).