>the act of “paying” the CEO in stocks is subject to taxation at the point in time the CEO receives it as part of their income
That is technically true, but this is where it gets tricky.
If you joined a public company (this will work with private too, if you weren't the founder, but let's not thing about it for the sake of simplicity for now) as the CEO, this will work out perfectly just like you described. You got all those shares at joining, you pay tax on their value at the time. As you get more shares, you get taxed on their value as soon as you receive them. If you decide to sell those shares, you don't get taxed on the initial value of them (since you already got taxed on it when you received the shares), only on the profits you made at the moment of sale (or you get your taxable income reduced due to losses, in case the share price went down between the moment you received the shares and the moment you sold them). So far so good.
If you started your own company, you initially hold the shares that are worth nothing, so you aren't really taxed on them. If you don't continue receiving new shares, but instead just hold onto the initial ones, you only get taxed on them when you sell them (since when you "received" them originally, they were worth nothing). Does Zucc receive more shares over time? I don't think so, he is just holding onto his original shares (while, no doubt, selling some and getting taxed on them), so this law will not affect him one bit unless he receives more shares.
Not trying to discredit your theory, your overall point is correct, I just wanted to add more nuance.
P.S. I am not an expert on this by any means, so if someone can correct me (especially on the "starting your own company" scenario), please do so. I find this a fascinating topic, and I try to answer as accurately as I can. But since I didn't experience that scenario myself, I can definitely be wrong or missing some details.