Not the person you're replying to. I'm white/non Jewish, and I have a law degree and work in the legal industry. My post history is 'wide open'.
Under no definition of genocide (as defined either going back to the middle 20th century or as that term is defined legally today) is Israel committing genocide. Simply put, there is no evidence that Israel is committing "specific acts with the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial, or religious group." Intent is, as with almost everything in the criminal law, everything here. If you want to subdivide Muslimes in a way that results in, say, Hamas and Hezbollah being their own religious groups then you could mount the argument on that basis, but those are political designations and so good luck with that. And of course neither of those groups encompass the entirety of the national polities they claim to represent - just look at how hated Hezbollah is in Lebanon. They are being ostracised and even the Lebanese leaders want nothing to do with them at this point.
People like you degrade actual acts of genocide such as what happened with the Nazis or such as what has happened several times in SE Asia and Africa over the past 50 years. A country acting in self-defense is not genocide no matter how much it might hurt your sensibilities. Genocide is, as is obvious to most people, extremely difficult to prove. See Armenia for how fraught this debate is. But acts of brutality in a conflict or an extreme imbalance of military power between belligerents alone do not mean that genocide is occurring.
Good day.
