Earlier quoted context omitted.
Corporations have similar legal rights to corporeal persons. Freedom of speech, access to the legal system, etc. As a result of having similar rights, they should be taxed as corporeal persons. It is not rocket science to conclude that corporations in the U.S. should be taxed at the same effective tax rate as real persons.
And just like the real person cannot get a write off for things required to live or things that make them more attractive on the market, neither should businesses. If I have to pay taxes on the income I spent to repaint my house, why shouldn't a business have to pay taxes on the revenue they spent to repaint their building?
Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
311–320 of 333 posts
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#312Earlier quoted context omitted.
What measure? It's two different transactions that occur under different terms at different times. Suppose some code is written by an independent contractor instead of your employees. The contractor is in San Francisco. The San Francisco office pays the contractor, then does nothing more than immediately sell the rights to the code to the Ireland office for approximately the same amount. You just demonstrated that th…
"Sell" is a four-letter word. Was that an actual market transaction where the seller got the highest price they could, and said price was evaluated by the buyer against alternatives? No, of course not. It was a dictated sale, precisely to present a fiction to the tax authorities. You can only use a sale price to justify a valuation when it's under those circumstances, or a good-faith approximation of such circumstanc…
Why not? The San Francisco office doesn't have any monopoly over the contractor. It doesn't have anything the Ireland office wants that nobody else could provide. So what is it doing that justifies it receiving a significant premium?
> You can only use a sale price to justify a valuation when it's under those circumstances, or a good-faith approximation of such circumstances.
How isn't the transaction between employee and employer any different? If there were two otherwise identical jobs doing the same work and one paid more, the employee would choose the higher paying one, so it's not unreasonable in general to assume that what the company paid the employee was the market rate to have that sort of work done.
> In normal circumstances t would make no sense for FB to take on the risk of hiring a contractor and justify the RoR to shareholders knowing they could only immediately sell for exactly what they paid. That's not how sane businesses operate.
But they do know that. The Ireland office is willing to immediately pay them the full amount they're paying the employees, so the US office is taking no risk. No risk, no reward; thin margins are the norm in that sort of transaction.
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#313Earlier quoted context omitted.
That is not how IP valuation works. The internal cost is not the measure; the potential or actually sales/licensing value of the IP is the measure.
What measure? It's two different transactions that occur under different terms at different times. Suppose some code is written by an independent contractor instead of your employees. The contractor is in San Francisco. The San Francisco office pays the contractor, then does nothing more than immediately sell the rights to the code to the Ireland office for approximately the same amount. You just demonstrated that th…
Cost of creation is not a valid measure of the value of IP or intangible products generally, though it can provide a lower bound for physical products.
e San Francisco office pays the contractor, then does nothing more than immediately sell the rights to the code to the Ireland office for approximately the same amount.
The market price is what an independent third party would pay for the IP, not what your other office would pay. And what a third party would pay is based on how much they would be able to monetize the IP for in their own uses or the value they would derive from it (for example, like a process-based IP that increases efficiency).
The Ireland office could have just as well paid the contractor directly.
Maybe they could have. If the idea actually would have originated in Ireland, then they should have contracted the programmer directly, and then they would own the IP instead of the US office. But they didn't. It was the US office's idea to engage the contractor, to tell him what to program, and to evaluate the fruits of his labor. You would need to establish that the idea would just as easily have originated in the Irish office, and generally that's a very difficult to prove.
What value is the San Francisco office supposed to be adding that justifies being awarded a significant fraction of the total revenue?
Because territory matters when you're talking about sourcing income for tax purposes, especially where you're dealing with two related but legally distinct entities in different countries. There are literally millions of pages written about this (see "transfer pricing") because it has been the primary means of tax avoidance and tax evasion by multinationals for the past 3 decades. It is the primary focus of the OECD and (pre-trump) of the IRS and the EU.
Note: if both entities were in the same country, these concerns usually go away because related companies usually file consolidated tax returns (i.e., as if they were a single company), so all of this valuation crap would be rendered meaningless for tax and reporting purposes.
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#314Earlier quoted context omitted.
"Sell" is a four-letter word. Was that an actual market transaction where the seller got the highest price they could, and said price was evaluated by the buyer against alternatives? No, of course not. It was a dictated sale, precisely to present a fiction to the tax authorities. You can only use a sale price to justify a valuation when it's under those circumstances, or a good-faith approximation of such circumstanc…
> Was that an actual market transaction where the seller got the highest price they could, and said price was evaluated by the buyer against alternatives? No, of course not. Why not? The San Francisco office doesn't have any monopoly over the contractor. It doesn't have anything the Ireland office wants that nobody else could provide. So what is it doing that justifies it receiving a significant premium? > You can on…
The law, tax, business, and reality doesn't work that way. They make policy based on a view of the entire forest, not on the gnarls in a single tree branch.
Territory matters when you're talking about taxing value creation. It always has. If you're arguing against that you're literally arguing against thousands of years against human history. The short answer: it's this way because humankind fought a lot of wars to make it this way, and trying to change it could result in more violence.
How isn't the transaction between employee and employer any different? If there were two otherwise identical jobs doing the same work and one paid more, the employee would choose the higher paying one, so it's not unreasonable in general to assume that what the company paid the employee was the market rate to have that sort of work done.
No, it's not reasonable to make that assumption based on the facts. The employee/business relationship is not related to the value of product created by the employee. This is literally not how any business works. If it was, then most tech startup employees would get paid below minimum wage. FAANG programmer salaries would start in the low millions after a year or two on the job. Mid-level attorneys at most law firms would be making a cool million each year. Backoffice employees at any company wouldn't get paid at all, because they don't contribute to the creation of products.
But they do know that. The Ireland office is willing to immediately pay them the full amount they're paying the employees, so the US office is taking no risk. No risk, no reward; thin margins are the norm in that sort of transaction.
Valuation isn't about what the Irish company would do. Valuation is about how much the IP would be worth on the open market, to unrelated third parties who might not have insider knowledge of the actual cost of creating the IP, and thus who base their offer prices on the value of the IP to their own interests.
More importantly, if the Irish office was always going to reimburse the US office for hiring the US contractor to create the IP, that trail of paperwork says the Irish office was the actual creator of the IP, because the US office was just acting as its agent in hiring the contractor. And that's a very different scenario than what you were originally talking about. (And side note: backdating legal documents to suggest this was the contemplated transaction all along is a crime in both the US and Ireland likely to result in prison time if the IP has any significant value.)
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#315Earlier quoted context omitted.
Mostly that deciding when it's a legitimately different subsidiary and when it's just a shell for a corporate tax dodge seems difficult and with billions of dollars at stake for the largest companies there's a lot of incentive to make or find and exploit loopholes where FB Ireland technically qualifies as a legit division instead of a tax dodge shell.
While there's certainly a lot of incentive to exploit loopholes, I think we could make it sufficiently onerous and lawsuit-prone to skirt the line that these massive corporations might just pay their damn taxes instead. With fairly commonsense questions like: - Was the company formed at Megacorp's behest? - Is there direct coordination between Megacorp and company leadership? - Do Megacorp and the company share busin…
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#316Obviously a short comment isn't going to have the rigor needed to solve such a complex problem or figure out appropriate exceptions. Having said that I honestly believe appropriate governance laws that recursively apply to subsidiary and owned companies would be a very effective (even if not perfect way) for a single country to start realizing tax on their multi-nationals before the much slower wheels of international agreements can grind the problem away.
My poorly thought out solution is along the lines of:
Any company owning shares in another must attempt to vote every year that that the subsidary (or just invested in company) company pays out a dividend proportional to net profit and 3rd party investment since the last such passing vote.
Any subsidiary incorporated by this company must apply these rules and any investment in the company is taxed when the subsidiary incorporates or buys stock in another company.
They must also attempt to vote that any company they have shares in follow these same rules.
No temporary transfer of shares or proxy appointment should effect the outcome of these mandated votes.
I'm sure there are issues with my implementation of this idea such as longer planning of a warchest for growth or perhaps intuitive structures such as a subsidiary that manages all international subsidiaries but it was more to highlight a particular structure than to be exhaustively tuned.
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#317We changed the URL from https://www.foxbusiness.com/technology/facebook-faces-tax-co... to one with the same text and no autoplaying video.
aka we hate certain outlets and don't want to drive them views. keep it up, dang ;)
We don't care about site quality, we care about article quality: https://hn.algolia.com/?dateRange=all&page=0&prefix=false&qu....
Most major media sites have some good articles and many bad articles, in HN's sense of good/bad, so nearly all of those get mildly penalized on HN: https://hn.algolia.com/?dateRange=all&page=0&prefix=true&que.... But there are plenty of ways for that penalty to get overridden by software or users or moderators.
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#318Earlier quoted context omitted.
Those are not "weird tricks". Those are tax incentives whose intent is obvious (make the environment better) and where your friend's using the tax incentive directly aligns with why that tax rule is there. Your friend and the tax law are clearly doing what they are clearly designed to do, which benefits not just him but us all. However, if your friend's "weird trick" is something like a double Irish [1], then it's no…
> Your friend and the tax law are clearly doing what they are clearly designed to do, which benefits not just him but us all. As we know the mortgage interest tax deduction was intended to promote home ownership. A lot of people who would have bought a home anyway then go out and take a bigger home loan in order to use the money they would have put down as principal to e.g. buy a car. The tax provision clearly wasn't…
That's a red herring. Once he receives the money from the tax break (the reward) in exchange for buying a house (the incentivized activity), what he does with that money is completely irrelevant, unless it somehow involves reducing home ownership.
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#319Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Is this actually illegal though? Or is it just clever exploitation of the rules? Tax avoidance is not the same as evasion. IMO illegality has a human and personal component too. I understand your question is about whether what they did was legal or illegal. But let me give you an example of something that is "clearly wrong" but sometimes legal. Let us assume that you buy something (or are paid cash) and the amount…
Mmmm. There must be some epic level shenanigans going on somewhere to make that kind of tax liability recording even possible. A stock can only have a single holder of record, and only one dividend payment should ever be made to whoever the holder of the stock was at the time of the payment. https://www.bloomberg.com/news/articles/2019-09-02/the-germa... If that article is to be believed, I'd suspect there was a bank…
Yes you are right with this. I have suggested a way to handle this to my colleagues informally, but I don't work with the tax offices themselves. What I would do is to have each share at the atomic level as you mention to have a serial number. If you reclaim for 100 shares then you need to supply 100 serial numbers.
With regards to the banks, absolutely, they are the critical step in this kind of fraud.
The serial number solution does have one weak point: You can use "unused" serial numbers for your reclaim or you can use serial numbers from someone who lives in a country that does not participate in the bilateral treaty that allows the reclaim. This latter example is also essentially using "unused" serial numbers. Typically there are many billions of dollars of withholding tax that remains unclaimed for whatever reason, sometimes even just ignorance. But at the very least this allows you to be better off than today. The tax offices, if they are competent, can even try to attach each serial number to a person, but there are privacy laws that can prevent this. Another subtle point is that a dividend payment event is not the same thing as receipt of the dividend in your account. Typically, the receipt of the dividend is the critical point that tax offices want, not proving ownership of the dividend. This is why the banks have so much power here. They essentially prove payment receipt, not dividend ownership. The logic is that you can't have had the payment into your account if you didn't have ownership of the dividend. There are also other examples of fraud such as forging the country of residence of the shareholder.
Oh yes, and then lastly: Apparently around 2009 some countries turned a blind eye to cum-ex because they saw it as a way to "boost the recovering economy" by pushing up bank revenues... ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Re: Facebook tax court trial begins over Ireland offshore deal
#320Earlier quoted context omitted.
I’m well aware of the history. What’s new is the President’s newfound knowledge that his corruption has no consequences.
If you think that's new, you're obviously not aware of the history. How would you compare and contrast the corruption and lack of consequences of say, the Iran Contra conspiracy, to Trumps scandals? Just to throw you a bone, you'll notice that AG Barr was involved in the pardons resulting from the Iran Contra affair as well.