Earlier quoted context omitted.
Somewhere on /r/academicbiblical there is some refutation of a link between (c) and (b) but I can't find it while I'm at work right now. I can try to dig it up tonight if you're interesting. I'm not claiming it's strictly correct, just that there is at least serious argument against the possibility that Zoarastrianism was the main driver behind the development of Israelite monotheism.
I’m not the person you’re replying to, but I’m interested if you could find that link later.
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/xrynt2/why_i...
-- linked from /r/academicbiblical in this discussion: https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicBiblical/comments/1j1qx7q/v...