Earlier quoted context omitted.
It's kind of disappointing that GPT-4 defines NP-completeness in terms of Turing/Cook reductions while Karp reductions have been the preferred definition for the last half century or so. For example, under GPT-4's definition there is no distinction between NP-Completeness and Co-NP-Completeness. I guess that speaks to the volumes of laymen explanations out there.
What in the response indicates Turing or Cook reductions? I would say the answer does not go into nearly enough technical details to conclude anything like that, it does not even mention [polynomial time] reductions. Even among the people seeking some understanding of the P vs NP problem this is a level of technical detail essentially relevant to almost none of them. I studied computer science and if we ever discusse…
That is (nearly) correct under Cook reductions but not Karp reductions.
I say "nearly" because "if language L can be solved (decided) in polynomial time, then so can any problem in NP" is a vacuously true statement for any L not in P, so by this definition nearly all languages (a measure 1 fraction of them) are also NP-complete despite most of them not being in any particularly interesting complexity class.
If we escape this degeneracy by replacing the antecedent with "given access to an efficient way to decide L", then we've recreated NP hardness under Cook reductions.