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A new proof of Euclid's Theorem (2006)

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Re: A new proof of Euclid's Theorem (2006)

#31
I'd like to draw attention to a fact already pointed out by Chinjut in this thread: The original formulation of Euclid's proof is in fact entirely constructive, contrary to what the article claims.

Michael Hardy and Catherine Woodgold have written a very nice and readable account on the misconceptions about Euclid's proof (published in 2009). I'm sorry that I can only give a paywalled link; at least the first two pages are available. http://link.springer.com/article/10.1007%2Fs00283-009-9064-8

Incidentally, with the specific situation at hand, the question "constructive vs. nonconstructive" is slightly moot. This is because there is a certain metatheorem in mathematical logic which states: If there is a nonconstructive proof of a statement, then there is also a constructive proof.

Of course this metatheorem doesn't apply to arbitrary statements, only to statements of a specific logical form (so called "geometric sequents"). But the statement "there are infinitely many prime numbers" can be put into such a form. Also, in case you are wondering, this metatheorem admits itself a constructive proof.

Summarizing, there is a mechanical way to turn any nonconstructive proof of the infinitude of the primes into a constructive one.

The key words to look up here are "double-negation translation" and "Friedman's trick". Fantastically, the double-negation translation turns out to be "the same as" the continuation-passing style transformation, if viewed from the right angle. Some pointers are in this slide deck: http://rawgit.com/iblech/talk-constructive-mathematics/maste...

Re: A new proof of Euclid's Theorem (2006)

#33

This discussion illustrates an interesting point -- it can be a little tricky to judge whether two proofs are actually "different" or not. When I was a grad student I interrupted a study session to raise the simple question -- can a theorem really have two different proofs? We all thought the answer was yes, but the discussion went on for several minutes until I settled it by contriving a stupidly simple and syntheti…

Good. Now do it with independent axioms / where no axioms follow from the rest.

I guess like how some sentences are provable with or without the axiom of choice.

Re: A new proof of Euclid's Theorem (2006)

#34

This discussion illustrates an interesting point -- it can be a little tricky to judge whether two proofs are actually "different" or not. When I was a grad student I interrupted a study session to raise the simple question -- can a theorem really have two different proofs? We all thought the answer was yes, but the discussion went on for several minutes until I settled it by contriving a stupidly simple and syntheti…

Good. Now do it with independent axioms / where no axioms follow from the rest. I guess like how some sentences are provable with or without the axiom of choice.

> Good. Now do it with independent axioms / where no axioms follow from the rest.

They already did. Which of their four axioms do you think follows from the rest?

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