Earlier quoted context omitted.
"He/she calls himself/herself X"?
This is what Spanish and Italian do normally. "Mi chiamo" and "me llamo" both translate to "I call myself." Other languages probably do the same, but I'm not qualified to speak about anything else.
E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
31–40 of 157 posts
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#32Chinese uses "is" much more rarely than english. And that's something it takes a while to get used to. For example 中國很大 ("China is very big", literally "China very big") But for a while you'll be tempted to add an "is" in there. In fact you can use an "is" to change the emphasis. Eg. "中國是很大的" (literally "China is very big adjective modifier ")
"Hungry, or?" - "Not hungry" "Take, no?" - "Take"
In practice, people will often grunt for yes, and shake their head and break eye contact for no.
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#33How do you communicate someone's name then? You can't say "the name IS", or "He/she IS called". The cognate to the word all the other Germanic languages use has become archaic and even lacks a present tense form: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/hight#English Maybe: "One calls her/him"?
A not uncommon phrase is "They prefer to be called xxxx".
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#34Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#35Chinese uses "is" much more rarely than english. And that's something it takes a while to get used to. For example 中國很大 ("China is very big", literally "China very big") But for a while you'll be tempted to add an "is" in there. In fact you can use an "is" to change the emphasis. Eg. "中國是很大的" (literally "China is very big adjective modifier ")
On a tangent, Thai lacks "yes" and "no", and in theory one signals assent by repeating the verb or adjective, with or without a negative modifier. "Hungry, or?" - "Not hungry" "Take, no?" - "Take" In practice, people will often grunt for yes, and shake their head and break eye contact for no.
"Has mary got the message?" "she has"
"ooh, it's wet outside today" "it is"
"Are you happy?" "I am"
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#36Without thinking about it too deeply, formal logic would probably also be rather funky.
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#37I haven't read the paper/books but from the wiki article I find it problematic that "the code is red" is replaced with "we see the coat as red". Specifically if I were forced to use E' it would be very hard to argue certain philosophical positions. Objectivism vs. Subjectivism for example or to return to the coat...there could be a philosophical difference between the redness of the coat and the perception of it and…
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#38How do you communicate someone's name then? You can't say "the name IS", or "He/she IS called". The cognate to the word all the other Germanic languages use has become archaic and even lacks a present tense form: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/hight#English Maybe: "One calls her/him"?
He goes by the name Jack.
He bears the name Jack.
He answers to the name of Jack.
Everyone calls him Jack.
His parents named him Jack.
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#39I haven't read the paper/books but from the wiki article I find it problematic that "the code is red" is replaced with "we see the coat as red". Specifically if I were forced to use E' it would be very hard to argue certain philosophical positions. Objectivism vs. Subjectivism for example or to return to the coat...there could be a philosophical difference between the redness of the coat and the perception of it and…
Some philosophers, e.g. early Wittgenstein, would argue that certain philosophical positions only exist by sleight of tongue, being based upon some form of incoherence that can only exist in imprecise language.
From his Tractatus (note that he sort of changed his mind in his later work): "The correct method in philosophy would really be the following: to say nothing except what can be said, i.e. propositions of natural science--i.e. something that has nothing to do with philosophy -- and then, whenever someone else wanted to say something metaphysical, to demonstrate to him that he had failed to give a meaning to certain signs in his propositions. Although it would not be satisfying to the other person--he would not have the feeling that we were teaching him philosophy--this method would be the only strictly correct one.
Re: E-Prime: English without the verb 'to be'
#40Earlier quoted context omitted.
"He/she calls himself/herself X"?
This is what Spanish and Italian do normally. "Mi chiamo" and "me llamo" both translate to "I call myself." Other languages probably do the same, but I'm not qualified to speak about anything else.