Earlier quoted context omitted.
I don’t really understand why this is a “rule.” Say there’s two viruses and it takes both 3 weeks to run their course. They are both equally contagious during the 3 weeks, however the first virus results in death for 50% of those infected (50% recover after 3 weeks and are no longer contagious), and in the second the death rate is only 1% (99% recover after 3 weeks). Is such a virus not possible to exist?
the rule being discussed doesnt apply to a virus that reproduces and transmits to another host before causing illness. the basis of the lethality and transmissibility are inversely related is dependent upon dead or ill hosts having down time and not interacting with other hosts. thus if you are sick and febrile, you contact fewer individuals thus less opportunity for virus transmission between individuals. in the cas…
Re: Mutated Covid-19 strain confirmed in Japan as case tally hits record high
#291Thank you