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A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

roitman.io

281–290 of 352 posts

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#281

This is interesting, but I have to quibble with this: > If you express this value in any other units, the magic immediately disappears. So, this is no coincidence Ordinarily, this would be extremely indicative of a coincidence. If you’re looking for a heuristic for non-coincidences, “sticks around when you change units” is the one you want. This is just an unusual case where that heuristic fails.

[deleted]

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#282

This is interesting, but I have to quibble with this: > If you express this value in any other units, the magic immediately disappears. So, this is no coincidence Ordinarily, this would be extremely indicative of a coincidence. If you’re looking for a heuristic for non-coincidences, “sticks around when you change units” is the one you want. This is just an unusual case where that heuristic fails.

I think you are right and i had the exact same thought. I think people are misunderstanding you.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#283
If society were tasked one day with reinventing standards and units, it doesn't matter why, what do you think are some things they would change?

For example, I think for human counting, base 12 is about as easy as base 10, but gives good ways to express division by 3, in addition to division by 2 or 4. It also fits better with how we count time, like how there are 60 seconds in a minute, 12 months in a year, etc... but I imagine those might be revised as well.

Anyways, I'm curious to hear what others think.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#284

This article reasons that it is not a coincidence because of the “seconds pendulum” definition of the meter, which would necessitate the values being equal because of the pendulum time period equation. That all makes sense to me, and I agree. But here’s what’s odd to me: We ended up not choosing the seconds pendulum approach (for reasons mentioned in the article). Instead they chose to use “1 ten-millionth of the Ear…

I seriously need an explanation for that too. Never understood how these genius folks just came up with the most outlandish definitions that somehow make perfect sense

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#285
post #280

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Modern mathematics is more likely than not going to define pi as twice the unique zero of cos between 0 and 2, and cos can be defined via its power series or via the exp function (if you use complex numbers). None of this involves geometry whatsoever.

What do you mean? Cos is an inherently geometric function.

There are many equivalent definitions and many of them do not refer to geometry at all. If you don't want to go through cos you can always define pi as sqrt(6 * sum from 1 to inf 1/n^2).

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#286

If society were tasked one day with reinventing standards and units, it doesn't matter why, what do you think are some things they would change? For example, I think for human counting, base 12 is about as easy as base 10, but gives good ways to express division by 3, in addition to division by 2 or 4. It also fits better with how we count time, like how there are 60 seconds in a minute, 12 months in a year, etc... b…

To be honest I'm not a fan, time is cumbersome to do any sort of addition or subtraction to get exact days/hours/minutes (not to mention timezones etc).

Compare to metric units, always base 10 and always easy to convert mm to cm to m and so on.

Now that we live in a digital world - why do we consistently reinvent date/time libraries? To me that's proof enough the concepts are just hard to work with and over a long span of time verify your calculation is correct.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#287
post #207

Another interesting coincidence (or perhaps a decades-long dad-joke troll perpetrated by German-speaking scientists) is that 1 hertz is roughly equal to the frequency at which a human heart (“Herz” in german, with a nearly indistinguishable pronunciation to “Hertz”) beats.

That seems rather low rate. Regular rate in rest is 60 to 100. Which only lower bound is roughly 1Hz, while upper rate is quite far what I would understand German to understand as roughly.

80+ heart rate at rest seems very high to me. Is this based on averages from present-day people? Including lots of sedentary people with hyper tension, overweight and obese people, etc. So "normal" in the statistical sense but maybe not "normal" in the physiological sense?

Athletes have much lower resting rate. So if we take feral humans from 50Ky ago their rest heart rate would have been much closer to the 60 bpm.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#288
post #221

Regarding "Catholic meter": its definition depends on time measurement. How did they ensure that "seconds" of different clocks were equal?

The traditional definition of the second before modern timekeeping was 1/86400 of a day. I’m guessing that was precise enough for their purposes.

It must have been brutal to create the first clocks when your smallest external reference is a day long. You first make a huge hour glass or clepsydra and tweak it once per day until it's perfect. Very slow debugging loop.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#289

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I volunteer for the Mars mission as a weight loss tool.

Surviving on Mars will probably involve some mass loss, too.

With the current technology, even getting on a rocket to Mars will involve some weight loss - the mass budget is tight, and each kilogram they can trim off the crew bodies is a kilogram that could be put towards fuel, life support, or scientific equipment.

Re: A wonderful coincidence or an expected connection: why π² ≈ g

#290
post #134

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Another one would be philosophy: there’s nothing, something and everything. Or logic: ∃, ¬∃ and ∀. Just rambling here, but seems like universal concepts across fields.

Chiming in from theoretical linguistics: it is impossible for natural languages to "count", i.e. make reference to numbers other than 0, 1 or infinity. As an example, there are languages where prenominal genitives are impossible (0). Then, there are languages, such as German, where only one prenominal genitive is possible (1): > Annas Haus > *Annas Hunds Haus Finally, there are languages, such as English, where an in…

As a German speaker, the claim "more than one prenominal genitive is impossible" seems interesting but perhaps not entirely accurate. As a non-linguist I probably misunderstand the meaning of prenominal genitive and might be missing your argument's point. For the overarching discussion we should note though the great variety of refering to "more than one element" in German.

> Anna's mother's sister's dog's house

> Das Haus des Hundes der Schwester der Mutter von Anna.

It's difficult to parse though. We only get to know about Anna at the end of the sentence. Consequently, we avoid such sentences or use workarounds.

> Von Annas Mutters Schwester dem Hund sein Haus.

If you ever use such a construction German speakers will correct your bad language but they will perfectly understand the sentence's meaning.

A quick search brought me to this presentation: https://www.linguistik.hu-berlin.de/de/staff/amyp/downloads/...

The take-away seems to be: "German does not work like English" (slide 8) so be careful when comparing PreGen in German and English.

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