Earlier quoted context omitted.
What everyone is saying is exactly the opposite of philosophical. This is an argument of semantics. The existing supreme court rulings are crystal clear that they treat infringement as a different type of crime than theft, as they have different properties. No one is arguing with you about IF loss of sales can occur. They are telling you the legal definition of theft does not cover loss of potential. Hence the use of…
Do you genuinely interpret what I wrote as a claim that internet piracy met the legal definition of theft?
Steal and theft are the wrong words to describe a loss of potential sale.