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On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

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Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#261
post #259

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Incorrect, English does indeed have German influence but it also has more Celtic influence. One is closer to Old German than the other: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Old_High_German

Germanic tribes in the ancient world did not speak Old High German. The status of Old High German as the origin language of modern German is part of the construction of German history in exactly the manner I have described. There is very little Celtic in Old English. It's very close to a synthesis of Anglish and French. There's much more Danish in English than there is Celtic.

> Germanic tribes in the ancient world did not speak Old High German.

As per the link, it was spoken around 500 AD. Which is at the tail end of the Ancient World but it's still far older than Germany as a country.

> The status of Old High German as the origin language of modern German is part of the construction of German history in exactly the manner I have described

Are you just rejecting the entire field of linguistics? Languages absolutely do have descendants, and while there is admixture and external influences there is broad continuity between old German and contemporary German.

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#262

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Did you notice that your comment is flagged and mine isn’t? That should tell you something. Up to you if you want to fix your behaviour though.

Haha my interface shows the reverse. So I think we are both being played here. Although you flagged me Likely so it shows you that to make you feel better. But again you don’t know how these larger meta systems work so I’m guessing … well you get it.

Your account descriptions says "This account is no longer active in protest of Hacker News censorship."

Funny, I've never had a problem with the way this place is moderated. One of us must be getting flagged ("censored") a lot more than the other ... well you get it.

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#263
post #259

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Germanic tribes in the ancient world did not speak Old High German. The status of Old High German as the origin language of modern German is part of the construction of German history in exactly the manner I have described. There is very little Celtic in Old English. It's very close to a synthesis of Anglish and French. There's much more Danish in English than there is Celtic.

> Germanic tribes in the ancient world did not speak Old High German. As per the link, it was spoken around 500 AD. Which is at the tail end of the Ancient World but it's still far older than Germany as a country. > The status of Old High German as the origin language of modern German is part of the construction of German history in exactly the manner I have described Are you just rejecting the entire field of lingui…

I don't think you've established any factual challenge to either of my statements:

> But the only real connection between 'Germanic tribes' and the modern state of Germany is that people from the latter believe the former to be their forefathers. They are not genetically closer to them than other Europeans, nor do they speak the same language or call themselves the same word or have the same lifestyle or inhabit the same places.

> Modern German is no closer to the language of a randomly chosen 'Germanic Tribe' than English, Prussian, Danish, Yiddish, Swedish, Czech, etc

The fact that there is some connection between modern German and Old High German and some connection between Old High German and the languages of the Germanic tribes does not contradict either.

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#264

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I collect watches, and I have examples of various types (diver, pilot, etc, etc). The only thing I don't have is any watch with Roman Numerals, I don't like the way they look. That said I have a bunch of analog clocks around my flat, and zero digital ones. It's actually been kinda fun watching our child learn to tell the time: With an analog clock he pretty quickly understood the idea that one rotation of the seconds…

I sometimes use a digital wristwatch just to mix things up and I have a tough time sometimes translating how long to wait for pasta to cook - on an analog face, 11 minutes is easy to represent visually, but with a digital I have to do math in my head.

You need a microwave oven like mine, with the apparently-by-design feature (mentioned as an aside in a Technology Connections video some years ago, as I recall) that one can program the seconds up to 99. 11 minutes is 10:60 . (-:

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#265
post #154
post #132

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Having been amused by the headlined tiny factlet about clock faces when I was a child, I observe that the pseudish BBC copyright declaration system is, apart from the odd regnal number in law citations and apart from 19th century hymnals, pretty much my only significant exposure to Roman numerals through my entire life. The last time I even saw a clock face with Roman numerals, it was when clearing the house of a per…

> I have three clocks within view right now as I type this, one on an answer 'phone, and they are all digital readouts. None of them has an analogue option. It is at least simple to have an analogue clock face on iPhones, albeit with a digital one too - can't resist sharing screenshot considering what my next calendar appointment happens to be... https://i.ibb.co/0JgJL0p/IMG-3479.jpg (no it doesn't take 15 minutes, b…

None of the three clocks were iPhones. (-:

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#266
post #185

Earlier quoted context omitted.

It’s more the case that the world is big and communication used to be slow. So regional variations would develop. Sometimes becoming their own language, given enough time. It’s easy to forget how hard it is to standardise a large populous given everything these days can be shared at near-to-light-speed but even today you have regional slang. Terms that might be common in the north of a country but alien to southerner…

>So I find it entirely believable that there were multiple “standards” for Roman numerals that spanned different regions and periods of time. That indeed seems to be the case. Apparently it largely standardized at some point in the Middle Ages as usage was decreasing. Although I can't find a reference, it's logical to assume given the timeframe and place that the Church probably had something to do with the standardi…

That is, essentially, ossification in action.

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#267
post #134

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Or, rather, our idea of what the standard was, skewed as it is by survivorship bias and coming centuries after the fact, is superficial and wrong.

It’s more the case that the world is big and communication used to be slow. So regional variations would develop. Sometimes becoming their own language, given enough time. It’s easy to forget how hard it is to standardise a large populous given everything these days can be shared at near-to-light-speed but even today you have regional slang. Terms that might be common in the north of a country but alien to southerner…

Even thinking of this as regional variations developing is superficial and wrong. There likely was not a single central standard to splinter in the first place. Framing this in terms of modern concepts like centralized government-backed standards that get communicated out is a mistake.

The reality is far more likely that the notations IIII and IV were equivalent, to any numerate person of the era; and if asked about what the difference is their response would likely be the same as a modern person being asked about the two glyphs for "a" and "g" in many English alphabet typefaces (or even the various open and closed glyphs that Indian numeral "4" can have). They are so used to the forms that they don't even register a difference that is glaring to outsiders, let alone consider one to be "wrong" and the other "right".

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#268
post #263

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Germanic tribes in the ancient world did not speak Old High German. As per the link, it was spoken around 500 AD. Which is at the tail end of the Ancient World but it's still far older than Germany as a country. > The status of Old High German as the origin language of modern German is part of the construction of German history in exactly the manner I have described Are you just rejecting the entire field of lingui…

I don't think you've established any factual challenge to either of my statements: > But the only real connection between 'Germanic tribes' and the modern state of Germany is that people from the latter believe the former to be their forefathers. They are not genetically closer to them than other Europeans, nor do they speak the same language or call themselves the same word or have the same lifestyle or inhabit the…

You stated that old Germany wasn't spoken in the ancient world, when the link I posted explicitly said it was. You also wrote that "the only real connection between 'Germanic tribes' and the modern state of Germany is that people from the latter believe the former to be their forefathers", which is also not true. The languages are indeed linguistically descended from old Germany.

English is also less closely related to old German on account of the Norman french influence.

The Czech language is Slavic [1], it's substantially different than German. It's more similar to Polish or Russian.

Swedish and Danish are both North Germanic [2] rather than West Germanic [3] languages. Related to, but distinct from the West Germanic that would evolve into contemporary German.

Yes, there is a lot factually wrong with your posts.

1. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Czech_language

2. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/North_Germanic_languages

3. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Germanic_languages

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#269
post #260
post #251

Earlier quoted context omitted.

You didn't even bother to read the comment, did you?

I read the whole thing. It's literally a showcase of all the mental tics and obfuscations involved in the construction of artificial national histories as I described in my earlier comment. Accusations of bias, the suggestion that 'only nationality X would question this aspect of our proud Y history', turning minor linguistic coincidences into meaningful history, the admission that 'everyone is from all over the plac…

>I read the whole thing.

Alright

> It's literally a showcase of all the mental tics and obfuscations involved in the construction of artificial national histories as I described in my earlier comment.

I agree, all nations are artificial creations. I'd recommend Imagined Communities by Benedict Anderson. And never did I claim that a unified Macedonian nation has existed for longer than 144 years (since 1880), so not sure what the "artificial national histories" part is alluding to(?)

>Self-definition based on 'we are W because we're not U and definitely not V.'

What's wrong with this? Americans are American because they defied the British Empire. What are you going to claim next - that Americans don't exist? If so, good luck!

And isn't that how all nations are? The French are French because they're neither German, nor English, nor Spanish, nor Italian. Nations are essentially just in-group vs out-group behaviors and dynamics manifested in relatively large landscapes.

Serbs are Serbs because they're not Croats or Bulgarians or Macedonians or Albanians. Macedonians are Macedonians because they're not Serbs or Greeks or Bulgarians or Albanians.

All nations (groups) have traits that are different enough from another nation (group), which is why they become a group (nation) in the first place.

>The denial that it's possible to force the construction of a cultural, linguistic or ethnic group, despite numerous examples of exactly this happening.

I suppose I worded that part terribly, so it's my fault. I tried to say that all (yes, all) top-down nation-building projects don't work. I know you're going to provide examples of something like the middle eastern arab states, but that would be a terrible example, as no one, and I mean no one, from, say, as an example, from Saudi Arabia views himself as Saudi Arabian first, instead they view themselves as Arabs; same goes for people from other projects like Qatar, QAE, Bahrain and the other "nation"-states in that region. The people living in those "nation"-states didn't organically decide to create their state based on their nation, instead their "nation"-state borders were created by some interventionists in a faraway land, unsuccessfully because nobody there thinks that his "nation"-state is much different from his neighboring "nation"-state.

Macedonia, conversely, is not a top-down nation created by bureaucrats - people here, like people all over the world who belong to bottom-up nations, came to their own conclusion that they're different from those around them, hence they became a separate group (nation). And yes, if we got back far enough, at one point people here did consider them Bulgarians, and at another time Serbs, and at a third time, much further back, Greeks (I am not arguing against this fact, if you think I am then we are arguing bout different topics), but if we go back far enough, most people in Europe alone came from one group, which does not invalidate their national affiliations today.

>Appeal to biased histories written by true believers.

Where did I mention this? True believers?

>Appeal to linguistic treatises only available in the language in question.

Haha

https://www.amazon.com/Macedonian-Matters-Krste-Petkov-Misir...

And if you don't want to buy it, you can translate it yourself part by part:

http://damj.manu.edu.mk/pdf/0005%20Za%20makedonckite%20rabot... https://www.deepl.com/translator https://translate.google.com/

And btw, it's available in Bulgarian too, it was published in Sofia in 1903 after all; and most copies were confiscated or destroyed by the Bulgarian police, wonder why that happened?

I also wonder why Bulgaria occupied Macedonia in WWII - it wouldn't make sense to occupy one's own people, no? Unless... :)

>Appeal to the time-honored authority of ... the 1880s, a (not very distant) era when every single group of people in Europe was trying to become a nation.

And when did I say that the Macedonian nation has existed since time immemorial? Starting to look like you didn't read my comment. And what's wrong with the 1880s specifically? Would it have been better if it happened in the 1980s? What about the 1780s? Does America not exist because the revolution happened to be in 1776 - a random year as any?

>Alexander the Great did not live in Skopje.

Never said he did. He probably never stepped foot in what was Skopje at the time. Still, Macedonia is not Skopje, contrary to what most foreigners think (along with our politicians, unfortunately.)

>He did not speak Macedonian

Of course not, and I never said he did. The modern Macedonian language is a Slavic language, it would be absurd if he spoke a Slavic language some ~1000 years before the Slavs came to the Balkan with their language.

There is a chance that he spoke some version of Aincent Macedonian, likely a dialect of Greek, which is very likely not related to the modern Slavic language which bears the same name, along with Greek, the prestige language of the time.

> 'a language closer to Bulgarian than to Serbian'.

Yes, what's wrong with that? It's in the South Slavic branch of languages, in the eastern group with Bulgarian and Old Church Slavonic. All languages in the South Slavic group form a dialectic continuum, meaning that we can all more or less understand each other (except, I would add, Slovene). Does that mean that no nation whatsoever exists in the Balkan? Or that we are all just one nation, even though we don't think we are, which is what nations are based around in the first place - thinking we belong to one group and not the other?

>There are at least 20 countries in Africa, Asia and Europe which have closer cultural, political or ethnic connections with Alexander the Great than Macedonia does.

And when did I say otherwise?

Seems to me that more than half the time here you're just arguing with yourself. And a couple of lines of yours read like they've been copy-pasted from some ready-made document full of zingers

Re: On clock faces, 4 is Expressed as IIII, not IV

#270
post #235

Earlier quoted context omitted.

It's not just a Russian name, it's the Slavic name for Constantinople. It's used in all Slavic-speaking countries when teaching Byzantine history, of course, written with slight distortions depending on the Slavic language in question

The use of Byzantine seems to imply middle ages history. Do check out the Constantinople Agreement from 1915. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constantinople_Agreement

Thanks, will do
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