I don’t understand how all of a sudden the shift was made onto the insolvency of RH and that the discussion is less about the original conditions that led up to this.
I just finished watching a video from Louis Rossmann [1] as well as one from Bruce Fenton [2]. In his video, Rossmann covers the technicalities and systems behind actually __making__ a trade with an app like RH. The videos were very informative and I learned quite a lot.
With the exception of his recent interviews, it isn’t exactly clear what Robinhood was supposed to do differently. If my understanding is correct, clearing houses required more money up front to perform trades - RH didn’t have it so they stopped the trades unidirectionally. People got upset that they couldn’t buy but could sell which made it seem like RH wanted to manipulate the price - but isn’t it better than the alternative, the inability to both sell and buy would seem to me worse than what was done. Imagine them closing both and preventing people from selling if a crash occurs. The discussion would simply be « Robinhood stole our gains and wouldn’t let us move our funds ».
Now, should it be the case that more money is required up front, intuitively it makes sense, I mean, who is supposed to front the bill on those 5000% returns? The hedge fund that just went bankrupt? Where exactly does this money come from?
Isn’t RH just trying to play within the realities of the current system?
Genuinely curious.
[1]: https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=MAqxQe0l4g0&feature=youtu.be
[2]: https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=RQTC5f_VR9I&feature=youtu.be