Earlier quoted context omitted.
Tildes are used for strikethrough in some markup dialects (including mark down ), so I think they meant to depict replacing "its" with "Java's". No clue on the apostrophe.
(Forgive my grammar nazism.) The possessive form of "it" is "its": "The dog wagged its tail". But for basically everything other than pronouns and plurals, the possessive form involves adding "apostrophe s". In recent years, many people have tried to apply this rule to "it". But the problem is that "it's" is understood to be a contraction of "it is" or "it has"; furthermore, "its" already exists as the standard posse…
For most words, the possessive form is "'s"
For pronouns (including it) there are different rules. He becomes his, she goes to hers, it goes to its.
Also, words that already end in s don't get the " 's " treatment.
(Question - for words that end in "s", we put the apostrophe after the existing, ending 's', yes?)
Thanks again for posting this - viewing the possessive form of it as (yet another English language) exception to the normal rule of " 's " is really helpful.