> "I expect there would have been a warning given in that case before assessing a fine." [...] That is why I was making it clear that in fact no warnings are requiredThey didn't say warnings were required, they said that warnings were the norm. You haven't provided counter-examples to that claim, you're arguing against a straw-man argument that "warnings are required by the GDPR".
As an example outside GDPR, it is not required to give children warnings when they commit petty crimes (such as shoplifting) but that is the overwhelming norm in most countries. In this analogy, you're arguing that "most children don't get put in juvenile detention for shoplifting and get warnings instead" isn't true because there isn't a provision in the criminal code saying that children need to be given warnings.
> indeed as time goes on, few warnings are likely to be given.
This is an example of the "baseless sentiment" that you claimed you're trying to fight against. On what basis do you claim to know (or even conjecture) that "few warnings are likely to be given" in the future?
There are many examples of GDPR warnings being given. To me, it seems to be the norm -- if you have an actual counterexample (other than pointing out that warnings aren't required, despite now basically admitting that legally-mandated warning stages aren't common and so that entire line of argument seems to be a non-sequitur) I'd love to see it.