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That’s a great question, and the answer is a definite no – they are not in conflict. Again, the pressure to think that the past influences future independent events is powerful. Regression to the mean is not a power in the universe that ensures that statistics work out in the end, it is purely a probability.I find TFA's argument about the gambler fallacy not being associated with regression to the mean quite hand wavy.
"Regression to the mean is not a power in the universe that ensures that statistics work out in the end, it is purely a probability."
Who said the opposite?
The gambler making the gambler's fallacy basically says that after successive black streaks it's more likely to see a red. They aren't saying that there's some "power in the universe" ensuring it. They're saying it's just more probable.
And in a way it is: assuming a non-biased roulette, each successive repeat N-same-streak should be increasingly less likely.
Taking all the groups of N rolls and showing that any N-same-streak going is just one of the possible permutations same as any other (and thus any N+1, N+2, N+3, etc. would be too) doesn't really cut it.
If you happen to actually see a 1000th black roll streak in a casino, you'd better suspect the roulette is rigged/biased, than naively think that "well, even with random independent events, there are bound to be large streaks".