Earlier quoted context omitted.
> if some group of people are overrepresented in some category, it is less likely to be a coincidence; i.e., I doubt it's because the people there are just less sexist You have simply defined “overrepresentation” in a sexist manner (50% women).
overrepresented given some pool. Do you have data that suggests said pool is 50%, instead of replying to all my comments and calling me sexist?
Your concept of a “pool” is as sexist as thinking that a hospital with more than 7.6% women physicians in 1970 was a result of discrimination against men.
The advance of women in medicine is not an “over representation”. It is closing the gap on underrepresentation due to systemic sexism (with still more work to do). This is beginning to happening in CS and other high wage fields traditionally reserved as men’s work. Your argument merely seeks to bastardize and turn the very terminology of sexism against this effort.
[1] https://sites.psu.edu/civic/2017/02/14/gender-discrimination...