Earlier quoted context omitted.
In my understanding what you are saying is, a country will tax profit on revenue generating from its own territory by its own tax rate. For the sake of simplicity, assume 100% profit margin. Let R and R' be revenue generating without and with such tax law. Let T be tax rate. So a company was hoping R into its bank account. But with the new taxes it would be (R - RT). Naturally the company would just increase the reve…
> In my understanding what you are saying is, a country will tax profit on revenue generating from its own territory by its own tax rate. Say we have a hypothetical company that operates only in Sweden and Ireland, and has offices only in Ireland. It has a revenue of €10M and a profit of €1M. This company had €4M (40%) of it's revenue in Sweden (tax rate 22%) and 60% of the revenue in Ireland (tax rate 12.5%). How sh…
So lets assume €10M is the already inflated ammount to accommodate for Ireland/Sweden share. Then only (€3.12m, €5.25) was needed from (Sweden, Ireland) if taxes were zero. €3.12m + €5.25m = €8.37m. €163k (€10m - €8.37) went to Govts. Then consumption taxes would be (28.2%, 14.2%) for (Sweden, Ireland). Swedese are paying (.282-.142)/(1+.142) = 16.3% more than Irish for same product.
You can calculate all these from equation in my comment before. I write here again,
R'(1-T) = R
whereas T is tax rates. R' is inflated revenue. R is zerotax revenue.