Earlier quoted context omitted.
Yes, in a way. What distinguishes irrational numbers from rational numbers is that all rational numbers can be represented by strings drawn from a regular language. For example, all strings generated by the regular language "-?\d+\.\d+?_\d+" (where "_" denotes the repeating decimal expansion as in 1/6 = 0.1_6) correspond to exactly one rational number and all rational numbers correspond to at least one string in this…
I'm not entirely sure I follow. Aren't pi and e irrational numbers? I also included .9_ as it is an easy trap to show we have two ways of writing 1 in standard decimal notation. Please read this whole post as a question. I'm genuinely not clear on the distinction.
According to the finitists, this is a defining feature of a "number". Since the same can't be done for irrational numbers finitists conclude that irrational "numbers" aren't numbers. You probably agree that all numbers are (or can be represented by) symbols, but that not all symbols are numbers. So how do we distinguish symbols from numbers?