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Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

quantamagazine.org

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Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#151

> In a breakthrough that disproves decades of conventional wisdom, two mathematicians have shown that two different variants of infinity are actually the same size I thought there are only two types of infinity and Cantor already proved that they are different. * Uncountable infinity which is the cardinality of the set of real numbers * Countable infinity which is the cardinality of the set of integers Cantor has alr…

This article is talking about the cardinality of two very specific sets. Before, many believed that t > p, but many believed that this was not provable in ZFC. Both sets contain only sets of integers, so their cardinality is bounded above by the cardinality of the real numbers (the continuum). Some people believed that this result was related to the Continuum hypothesis, and so was only provable one way or the other if you assume the CH or its negative.

As it turns out, both sets have the same cardinality (that of the real numbers) AND it is provable in ZFC.

The title is a little misleading, its really saying that two infinite sets are the same size, but prior to this their cardinality was unknown, and it wasn't even known if the cardinality was provable in ZFC.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#152
post #140

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Cantor is playing by the exact same rules that you are. His burden is: given an integer i, produce in finite time the i'th digit of a real not in your list. (He can't produce the whole thing in finite time because it's infinite, obviously.) He does this by using your algorithm to produce the i'th digit of the i'th row and adds one to it (mod 10).

> given an integer i, produce in finite time the i'th digit of a real not in your list Yes; to be clear, my point is simply that there are two variants of this task: - Given an integer i and our list (or the infinite procedure that generates it), then the task is easy since we can diagonalise. - Given an integer i and no knowledge of our list , the task becomes impossible, since the supposed "real not in your list" i…

> my point is simply that there are two variants of this task

There are infinite variants of this task. But only one of them is mathematically interesting with respect to the claim that the reals cannot be put into one-to-one correspondence with the naturals.

> including waiting until after the supposed counter-example has been generated

Obviously, if I give you a real you can then generate a list that includes that real. That isn't very interesting.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#153
post #117

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> if we make him write it down (as a computer program) He did. Diagonalization is an algorithm. It's a non-halting algorithm (because it operates on infinite input and produces infinite output) but it is nonetheless a perfectly well defined algorithm that can be implemented by a Turing Machine. > we can always (eventually) find a program which will trick it No, you can't.

You're right about diagonalization when it's given our choices as input . When I said 'writing down' I meant 'in a self-contained way', i.e. without taking any input (such as our choices). This rules out diagonalization, since that can't be run until it has a list of numbers to diagonalize. In the 'reverse' game, we're first running the counter-example-outputting program that Cantor provides, and then using its outpu…

> if Cantor gives us his (self-contained) program up-front,

Which he did. Diagonalization is an algorithm (and a trivial one at that).

> we can run it to see what 'move' he's going to choose

No, you can't, because one of the inputs to his algorithm is your algorithm. So you can't run his algorithm until you've committed to yours.

> Both games are a win for whoever goes second.

That's right. But Cantor has to go second. That's why his proof is correct.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#154
post #132

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Neither has logfromblammo answered me nor am I hung up on notation. The notation is only incidental. They are claiming that it is a well-defined number system with numbers "having a first digit and a last digit and an infinite number of digits in between." I say show that it works. You are saying the way this works is to disregard the digits after the infinitely many digits. Sure, that would make a consistent system.…

I'm not going to answer you, as I haven't made any claim that I care to defend. I made one little post in support of its parent, and people crawled out of the woodwork to tell me how wrong I am, and apparently try to convince me that infinitesimals are not allowed in serious mathematics, or at least not allowed in the way I was trying to use them. And now every post I have made in this thread tree is getting downvote…

For what it's worth, I spent time arguing with you because the ideas you were proposing were interesting, but the problem with math is you have to make rigorous definitions and such. The ideas as stated cannot be defended, but as I said elsewhere, you can make something like infinitesimals work with some more effort, but they aren't the real numbers anymore.

"Define it that way, but show me the theorems" is an important organizational philosophy of math. It also helps remove ego from everything. It can be painful creating math without realizing this, and communicating the philosophy was the main point I was trying to make. (I also had some hopes you would show interesting consequences!)

It's not like what you were saying was obviously wrong. It wasn't until the mid-1800's that people really sorted out the real numbers. I myself spent some time thinking I "solved" the 1/0 problem and thought about "numbers" like 0.000..infinitelymany...01, but the nice thing about math is that performing experiments isn't too expensive.

(I didn't downvote you. Sorry for the full-contact lesson in math philosophy, and don't get the idea this is a "sore spot in mathematics," rather the non-existence of infinitesimals in the real numbers is easily defended.)

Edit: Beyond the algebraic way of making infinitesimals work, there is also the real analysis version: limits to 0. The idea of infinitesimal there is that no matter what positive real number you give me, I can give you a smaller one. This concept of infinitesimal isn't a number per se. Similarly, one of the many ways infinity shows up is that no matter what number you give me, I can give you a larger one.

The metaphor of infinity also shows up in: cardinality of sets, as the added point in a one-point compactification, the extended real line, the Riemann sphere, arbitrarily large numbers (limits), and that's all I can think of at the top of my head.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#155
post #143
post #48

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I think I figured it out: you must be one of the aliens predicted by the downward Löwenheim–Skolem theorem! If we could have a model of set theory (a set1 of all set2s, where a set1 is a set in our set theory and a set2 a modeled set, like an interpreter), which is necessarily infinitely large, then the downward Löwenheim–Skolem theorem implies there is a model that is only countably infinite. There is a model of the…

I don´t think this is an alien that applied downwards Löwenheim-Skolem to the reals. Rather I think this is an alien which applied upwards Löwenheim-Skolem to peano arithmetic. I think this because the alien talks about infinite natural numbers, aka non-standard natural numbers. It has used upwards Löwenheim-Skolem to get a model of peano arithmetic that has the cardinality of the continuum, and then there is of cour…

The power of modern logic is that we can make predictions like this!

I wasn't sure whether the Löwenheim–Skolem alien was just translating things into our set theory for our sake, but I think your proposal is more likely.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#156
post #154

Earlier quoted context omitted.

I'm not going to answer you, as I haven't made any claim that I care to defend. I made one little post in support of its parent, and people crawled out of the woodwork to tell me how wrong I am, and apparently try to convince me that infinitesimals are not allowed in serious mathematics, or at least not allowed in the way I was trying to use them. And now every post I have made in this thread tree is getting downvote…

For what it's worth, I spent time arguing with you because the ideas you were proposing were interesting, but the problem with math is you have to make rigorous definitions and such. The ideas as stated cannot be defended, but as I said elsewhere, you can make something like infinitesimals work with some more effort, but they aren't the real numbers anymore. "Define it that way, but show me the theorems" is an import…

Proofs and explanations are not always the same. Proofs depend on logic and rigor, while explanations depend on the audience. Mathematics and pedagogy are not usually considered to be closely related areas of study. And yet universities make mathematicians teach mathematics.

Are they the best teachers? No. No, they are not. But they are the only ones that understand the subject matter well enough to do it. And that leads to the vicious cycle where you have to think like a mathematician in order to learn math from one, because they have difficulty explaining anything to any other type of person. A student that needs an explanation gets a proof, which is technically correct, but still fails to elucidate.

I think some kinds of math are fun and interesting, but proving the math is [currently] less than 1% of my job, and I have never had to worry about precision that would underflow a 64-bit floating point double.

Take another look at the whole thread tree, originating at https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=15236430 , and look at the posts by "zelah". Realize that all the responses made them realize that they got something wrong somewhere, but it looks like they are still as confused as ever, and probably net negative karma from being wrong on the Internet and not knowing why.

My original goal was to help zelah understand, and I failed. My secondary goal was to play the game alluded to by lisper, who essentially said I cheated. There is nothing left for me to accomplish here. I wasn't trying to be pissy and storm out the door in a cloud of drama, but rereading, it seems like that's probably the simplest interpretation of my last post. So... sorry for that. I'm still not writing you any theorems.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#157
post #153

Earlier quoted context omitted.

You're right about diagonalization when it's given our choices as input . When I said 'writing down' I meant 'in a self-contained way', i.e. without taking any input (such as our choices). This rules out diagonalization, since that can't be run until it has a list of numbers to diagonalize. In the 'reverse' game, we're first running the counter-example-outputting program that Cantor provides, and then using its outpu…

> if Cantor gives us his (self-contained) program up-front, Which he did. Diagonalization is an algorithm (and a trivial one at that). > we can run it to see what 'move' he's going to choose No, you can't, because one of the inputs to his algorithm is your algorithm. So you can't run his algorithm until you've committed to yours. > Both games are a win for whoever goes second. That's right. But Cantor has to go secon…

Sorry if I wasn't making myself clear: I'm not at all trying to refute Cantor's proof by diagonalization of the uncountability of the reals. There seem to be others in this thread who do take issue with it, but I don't.

It looks like my point's been misunderstood. I'm pointing out that the whole reason that Cantor's proof works (and it does work) is because we're forced to provide our complete list up-front. Or, for those who don't like the idea of 'writing down' something infinite, we must provide a 'description' or 'program' which uniquely defines/generates our list.

You say as much here:

> you can't run his algorithm until you've committed to yours.

Exactly. In Cantor's 'game', his counter-example (a real number not in our list) is generated with full knowledge of our list. Our list is generated with no knowledge of his counter-example.

That's Cantor's proof, and it is not what I'm talking about.

I'm talking about a different 'game', where the dependency is reversed: the "counter-example" is generated with no knowledge of the list; the list is generated with full knowledge of the "counter-example", and hence is able to refute it (by including the "counter-example" in the list).

This 'inverted' setup has two important differences from Cantor's setup:

1) We must replace the program/description of 'a list of reals' with a program/description of 'a function from a real to a list of reals'.

2) We must replace the program/description of 'a function from a list of reals to a real' with a program/description of 'a real number'

In particular, point (2) means that diagonalization is irrelevant in this setup (which I repeat is not Cantor's setup!). It is irrelevant because it doesn't have the right type: it is a function from a list of real numbers to a real number but there is no place for such a function in this alternative setup; instead, we need a plain old real number. This is what I was trying to get across by saying it must be 'written down up-front' (i.e. not after waiting for us to think of a list), or being 'self-contained' (i.e. not requiring an input/reference to our list).

I hope that makes it clear why the following refutations aren't applicable:

> > if Cantor gives us his (self-contained) program up-front,

> Which he did. Diagonalization is an algorithm (and a trivial one at that).

Given what I've said above, we see that diagonalization is not self-contained/provided-up-front/fully-written-down or any of the other phrases I've tried to use to get my point across. Yes, we can write a program for diagonalization, but such a program encodes a function, which has no place in this scenario (which is not the one in Cantor's proof!).

> one of the inputs to his algorithm is your algorithm

Again, the algorithm cannot take my/your/anyone's algorithm as an input, since it cannot take anything as an input, since it is not a function, since I am not talking about Cantor's proof by diagonalization of the uncountability of the real numbers. I am talking about a different situation, in which the "counter-example" is just a number, and hence cannot be provided with any inputs, whether they be algorithms or unicorns.

> > Both games are a win for whoever goes second.

> That's right. But Cantor has to go second.

By "both games" I mean Cantor's proof and this different situation. Cantor doesn't have to go second; that's my point! Cantor wins because he chooses to go second. If we choose to go second, then we will win, by constructing a list which includes the supposed "counter-example".

> That's why his proof is correct.

I know it is; but I've never claimed otherwise, and that is completely beside the point.

The point is that Cantor's proof isn't actually about the real numbers! Instead, it's about how some infinite structures (like "all numbers") are too rich to be completely captured by any particular finite representation (there will always be missing numbers). It suffices to use a countable infinity, like the computable numbers.

Alternatively, we can think of Cantor's proof as talking about computational resources: diagonalization is trivial to state, as you say, but it is computationally difficult to run. This is because it runs the list-generator as a subroutine (to find the digits), which can be made arbitrarily hard by generating the list in an arbitrarily complex way. Since diagonalization then adds 1 mod 10, it always ends up doing slightly more work than it takes to generate the list. Hence we can see Cantor's proof as statement that more powerful computers can always beat less powerful computers, assuming the code is all globally known, because the faster computers can simulate the slower ones to see what they'll do. That the essence of the second player always winning.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#158
post #103

Please answer me this one question: What is the average number of bits that are necessary to represent an arbitrary natural number? If the average number of bits is finite then I will shut up!

The average of an infinite set isn't necessarily a meaningful thing to consider. For example, what is the average integer? Well, you could argue that the answer is 0 because you can pair off the positives and the negatives. On the other hand, you could also say it's 1: pair off 0 and 2, -1 and 3, -2 and 4, etc.

Instead, the rigorous way to generalize the average is essentially to assign a probability to each member of the set, and compute the sum over the set of (n * p(n)), where p(n) is the probability of picking n, and the sum of all of the p(n) is 1. This is generally known as the 'expected value', and it has the property you want that the expected value of a set given a probability distribution is less than or equal to the maximum of the set.

On the other hand, you can't set p(n) to the same value for every natural number, since the sum of p(n) has to be 1 (because it's a probability). But the sum of infinitely many copies of the same number between 0 and 1 is either 0 or infinite.

So instead, you have to have some varying probability. For example, you might say you have have probability 1/2 of picking 1, 1/4 of picking 2, 1/8 of picking 3, and so on, halving the probability each time. And in that case, the average number of bits works out to be about 1.7.

In fact, you can show that for any way of picking a natural number at random, the expected number of bits to represent it will be finite.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#159

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Hundreds of thousands of mathematicians are wrong. No. No natural number has an infinite number of digits, and you are wrong. If you weren't, of course, it would be easy to prove me wrong -- simply name the natural number to which the successor function is applied that results in a "transfinite" number, whatever that is.

Be careful, there are such things as transfinite numbers, and they are well-founded. They let us do wonderful things like transfinite induction, and to prove, for example, that Goodstein's Theorem is true, even though it's unproveable in Peano Arithmetic. But transfinite numbers are not "natural numbers", they are not in the set N, they don't have infinitely many digits, and in the context of this thread, they are a…

I'm fine with nonstandard models; my scare quotes on "transfinite" were more to emphasize that the term was being used without basis or definition.

Re: Mathematicians Measure Infinities, Find They’re Equal

#160
post #96
post #92

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Same disclaimer as v64: my background is also mathematics, but not in this field. As he says, what was proved so far is that: a_0 The continuum hypothesis claims that they are all equal; that's been proved by Cohen to be independent of what you call "A" (and is generally called ZFC), by "Forcing" which is not easy, technical, and has won Cohen a Fields medal... And you're right in saying that what is proved in an axi…

Thanks. I think the idea I had in my head was this: If p=t or p!=t is decidable in ZFC+AoC, then it must be that p=t because otherwise that contradicts that the continuum hypothesis is undecidable. So a better way to sum up this result is: "The question of whether p=t or p!=t is decidable in ZFC+AoC. And oh yeah, they happen to be equal." How does that sound?

I hate to be that guy but a friendly correction: ZF + AoC is what ZFC refers to.

I'm not sure I follow your line of thinking. If it's decidable it could either be p=t or p!=t, no? Ie. If the contium hypothesis can be proved in ZFC, it could be either.

Afaik, Cohen proved, by using Gödel, that in fact p=t or p!=t is not provable in ZFC. Ie contium hypothesis is not provable in ZFC.

As I understand, Malliaras and Shelah have proved p=t ie contium hypothesis is true by using set and model theory. As I understand they are not relying solely on ZFC to prove this since that would disprove Cohen and my understanding is they do not.

Further, I understand this result to mean there can only be two infinities which can be said to be different, the cardinal of the countable rational numbers and the cardinal of the uncountable real numbers. But I don't really understand any of this shit so it is likely I've got it wrong.

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