Earlier quoted context omitted.
I don’t see how this graph shows that claim. It says it’s graphing the effect of welfare on income ratios between top 10% vs the bottom 50% then just has an arrow pointing down saying “Stronger redistribution” Where is the connection between the percentage being graphed and whatever their definition of “stronger redistribution” is? And I just realized the second graph includes capital gains for the fiscal income but…
>I don’t see how this graph shows that claim. It says it’s graphing the effect of welfare on income ratios between top 10% vs the bottom 50% then just has an arrow pointing down saying “Stronger redistribution” The chart is supposed accompany an article, which explains what the metric is: """A simple measure of progressivity involves comparing the distribution of income both before and after tax. By this measure Amer…
> 1. If you read the original paper[1], they seem to be doing it for weird economics reasons:
You should probably link a reference to the required extra information if you are expecting people to believe your sourced data instead of assuming they already know it.
> I don't know enough about economics to dispute this…
> In other words, not enough to change the conclusion.
If you don’t know enough about economics to dispute this, why would anyone trust your conclusion?
You’ve not changed my mind, only solidified that this is misleading data given your follow up.