Earlier quoted context omitted.
> interesting to characterize economic collapse as unrelated to access to foreign currency for international trade This jumps the rhetorical shark. Nobody said they’re unrelated. Just that the unrest is a response to the collapse. It would have occurred if the government seized dollars or not. The dollar seizure was a response to the collapse.
I acknowledge neither of our theories can be proven but it just seems too far fetched to me the unrest was attributable to everything but the banking measures.
Temporary and permanent capital controls have a long history of peaceful implementation. Economic collapses do not.