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A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

popularmechanics.com

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Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#141

Earlier quoted context omitted.

Here's the problem: Event A at location X at time T1 causes event B at location Y at time T2 > T1. If I can travel FTL, I can find a frame of reference where T2 before the cause. This leaves a few possibilities, and they're all bad: - There is no real cause and effect. - Cause and effect are real, but effects can come before causes. - The laws of physics are not the same in all frames of reference. Our current unders…

> If I can travel FTL, I can find a frame of reference where T2 How? Sure, it's possible that the light from an event happening at T2 arrives before the light from an event happening at T1, but that says nothing about when those events actually happened - just like how if we hear one lightning strike before another, that doesn't mean the one we heard first actually happened first. That is: this notion that all superl…

It's not a question of which light arrived first. I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1, I look at how far away I am from X, I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1), I subtract, and now I know what T1 is. Same for T2.

The issue isn't when the light arrived. The issue is that I can find a frame of reference where T2 < T1, that is, the actual events occurred in the other order. It's not when the light reached me. The problem is the time of the events themselves.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#143

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Signals slower than the speed of light (or even at the speed of light, e.g. radio signals in space) are ordinary and have no paradox, so there's nothing to debate. Okay, but that's the thing: from one perspective (the signal's) the signal is indeed subluminal, but from another (an observer's, e.g. the sender or recipient) it's not. So which math applies? > The answer is that light takes 104 years to travel from our…

> Okay, but that's the thing: from one perspective (the signal's) the signal is indeed subluminal, but from another (an observer's, e.g. the sender or recipient) it's not. So which math applies? All observers are valid. The maths answers differ due to different inputs but they apply the same formula. All should get self-consistent results, though not necessarily the same results: the idea that two events are "simulta…

> An observer moving with respect to A and B can "hack" this to produce effects before cause in their frame of reference.

Again, though: how? Specifically: how would a third observer have any impact at all? He's an observer. Judging by that new Wikipedia article, the answer seems to be "well the observer will perceive events at different times from when they actually happened, and therefore two simultaneous lightning strikes weren't actually simultaneous because the observer didn't see them simultaneously", but I'm failing to see why we should be treating the observer's interpretation as fact: just because the observer perceived something at various times doesn't mean that's how they actually played out.

Further:

> It's no co-incidence that Alice and Bob in the Tachyonic antitelephone are moving with respect to each other, therefor with different frames of reference.

Are they, though? This seems to assume that their movement around and perception of each other is only happening through "normal" space, but the very premise of this discussion states otherwise: that they are communicating via a region of spacetime where their distance is fixed (or at least changing much more slowly than the relativistic speeds given in those Wikipedia examples). If Alice and Bob are talking to each other through a wormhole, for example, then through that wormhole they are (approximately) stationary, and therefore there'd be no significant time dilation as far as that communication is concerned.

Same deal if they're communicating via "miniature starship enterprises", as you put it. The very premise of a warp drive is to get an object from A to B without any actual movement from A to B - specifically by warping spacetime such that the distance from A grows and the distance from B shrinks. This therefore creates a pathway between A and B where they are effectively stationary relative to one another, specifically because the message is stationary relative to each of them. Therefore, messages conveyed on this pathway don't seem to leave any possibility of time dilation, and therefore no possibility of inverted causality.

Now, obviously I'm missing something here, but from what I can tell, the math checks out fine. And a lot of physicists who are not community college dropouts like I am seem to agree (or else they wouldn't be putting forward hypotheses involving warp drives and wormholes and such as a means to achieve superluminal communication without time-dilation-related effects).

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#144

Earlier quoted context omitted.

That doesn't answer the question. The hypothetical existence of a tachyonic antitelephone presupposes that superluminal communication causes backward time travel. The question is why superluminal communication (allegedly) causes backward time travel, and by what mechanisms. And no, just because some arbitrary frame of reference is slow to receive information doesn't mean the events creating that information have scra…

it's not like a thunder storm. The wikipedia page has a worked out example. If you can go back and forth between 2 places FTL you can arrive before you left and interfere with your departure. You are more convinced by a metaphor than the actual theory of relativity. That can't be helped.

> The wikipedia page has a worked out example. If you can go back and forth between 2 places FTL you can arrive before you left and interfere with your departure.

That example has multiple assumptions that seem to make said example only relevant to a very specific case, rather than to superluminal communication in general (least of all to approaches specifically designed to avoid those assumptions):

1. Alice and Bob are themselves moving at relativistic speeds relative to each other while communicating. That doesn't seem relevant for cases where they are not doing so - in particular when they are communicating across a region of spacetime crafted specifically such that they are stationary relative to each other.

2. Alice's signal to Bob and Bob's reply to Alice are both somehow themselves moving through normal spacetime at a speed greater than c - i.e. the messages are tachyonic (hence: tachyonic antitelephone). Again, when discussing mechanisms of warping spacetime such that no >c movement within any local frame of reference is actually necessary, bringing up tachyons doesn't seem especially relevant.

> You are more convinced by a metaphor than the actual theory of relativity. That can't be helped.

That can be helped, specifically by explaining why the metaphor is wrong, and where it actually contradicts general or special relativity.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#145

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> If I can travel FTL, I can find a frame of reference where T2 How? Sure, it's possible that the light from an event happening at T2 arrives before the light from an event happening at T1, but that says nothing about when those events actually happened - just like how if we hear one lightning strike before another, that doesn't mean the one we heard first actually happened first. That is: this notion that all superl…

It's not a question of which light arrived first. I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1, I look at how far away I am from X, I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1), I subtract, and now I know what T1 is. Same for T2. The issue isn't when the light arrived. The issue is that I can find a frame of reference where T2 < T1, that is, the actual events occurred in the other orde…

> I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1

Except that your notion of T1+t1 is already going to be different from any other (non-stationary) observer's, yes?

> I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1)

Doesn't this assume that light has a fixed speed? We know already that this ain't necessarily the case, even in a vacuum; there are plenty of things - like sufficiently strong gravity wells - that can slow down light considerably. And in the context of situations involving warp drives and wormholes and other things bending spacetime willy-nilly, that further throws a wrench in attempting to figure out how long it took light to reach you.

> and now I know what T1 is

More like you have a vague idea of what T1 should be, assuming a flat spacetime. My point is that spacetime curvature can already throw this out the window, and that it therefore doesn't seem like we should be taking that estimated departure time as fact.

That is: if how an observer is perceiving something is indeed what actually dictates reality, then I don't see how causality can actually exist in the first place, because different observers can perceive the same events in different sequences based on their relative movement. If causality is to exist at all, even under normal conditions, then it seems like it needs to be possible for observers to be wrong, no?

So maybe I need to ask this even more specifically:

> The issue is that I can find a frame of reference where T2 Okay, which frame of reference would that be? Under what conditions? By what mechanisms that would apply to literally all cases of superluminal communication (even ones explicitly formulated to avoid things like relativistic relative speeds upon which thought experiments like the tachyonic antitelephone depend)?

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#146

Earlier quoted context omitted.

It's not a question of which light arrived first. I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1, I look at how far away I am from X, I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1), I subtract, and now I know what T1 is. Same for T2. The issue isn't when the light arrived. The issue is that I can find a frame of reference where T2 < T1, that is, the actual events occurred in the other orde…

> I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1 Except that your notion of T1+t1 is already going to be different from any other (non-stationary) observer's, yes? > I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1) Doesn't this assume that light has a fixed speed? We know already that this ain't necessarily the case, even in a vacuum; there are plenty of things - like sufficiently strong gra…

> > I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1

> Except that your notion of T1+t1 is already going to be different from any other (non-stationary) observer's, yes?

Yes, and so is my distance from my current position to X, which I use to calculate my value of t1, which I use to calculate my value of T1. All the numbers are different for all the observers. Special relativity tells us how to convert the numbers between observers.

> > I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1)

> Doesn't this assume that light has a fixed speed? We know already that this ain't necessarily the case, even in a vacuum; there are plenty of things - like sufficiently strong gravity wells - that can slow down light considerably. And in the context of situations involving warp drives and wormholes and other things bending spacetime willy-nilly, that further throws a wrench in attempting to figure out how long it took light to reach you.

First, light does have a fixed speed, locally (that is, at each point within the gravitational well or whatever). Second, gravitational wells are pretty well understood in terms of their effects on light, and I'm pretty sure we could calculate the effect of the warp drive's gravitational distortion on it as well. "The effect exists" does not equal "therefore we can't do the calculation".

> That is: if how an observer is perceiving something is indeed what actually dictates reality

Nobody said that - at least, not until you drag quantum mechanics into the picture, and even then, there are debates about that.

> If causality is to exist at all, even under normal conditions, then it seems like it needs to be possible for observers to be wrong, no?

I have no idea where you got that. If causality is to exist at all, then 1) causal signals can't travel faster than the speed of light, and 2) neither can an observer. If those two hold, then we can have real causality with no observers being wrong, because all observers always observe cause-and-effect happening in the same order.

> > The issue is that I can find a frame of reference where T2 > Okay, which frame of reference would that be? Under what conditions? By what mechanisms that would apply to literally all cases of superluminal communication (even ones explicitly formulated to avoid things like relativistic relative speeds upon which thought experiments like the tachyonic antitelephone depend)?

Not me. I'm not going to walk you through all the equations. I'll tell you where to start, and then I'm done. Start by learning the Lorentz Transform - not just reading the equations, but understanding what they mean and how they work. That will clear up most of your misconceptions. Any basic book on Special Relativity should get you there. The Wikipedia article might, if you take the time to really work through it carefully.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#147

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1 Except that your notion of T1+t1 is already going to be different from any other (non-stationary) observer's, yes? > I do a little math to calculate how long it took the light to get there (t1) Doesn't this assume that light has a fixed speed? We know already that this ain't necessarily the case, even in a vacuum; there are plenty of things - like sufficiently strong gra…

> > I see light arrive from X at some time T1+t1 > Except that your notion of T1+t1 is already going to be different from any other (non-stationary) observer's, yes? Yes, and so is my distance from my current position to X, which I use to calculate my value of t1, which I use to calculate my value of T1. All the numbers are different for all the observers. Special relativity tells us how to convert the numbers betwee…

> Start by learning the Lorentz Transform

Which specifically describes coordinate transformations between two reference frames in motion relative to one another, right? My whole point is that in this context the reference frames are not (significantly) moving relative to one another - that relative movement is exactly what things like wormholes and warp drives are designed specifically to avoid.

So no, that doesn't clear up much at all, unfortunately.

To expand on that, because I still think we're talking past each other here:

> If causality is to exist at all, then 1) causal signals can't travel faster than the speed of light, and 2) neither can an observer.

Okay, which wormholes, warp drives, etc. seem to satisfy:

1. The causal signals - from the reference frames of the signal, sender, and recipient - are all moving such that v is less than c, because spacetime has been warped accordingly

2. In order to observe these signals, the observer would, too, have to be part of that system of warped spacetime (i.e. inside the wormhole, or in the path of our Alcubierre pigeon, or what have you). Otherwise, how would the observer actually see anything?

In any case, thanks for bearing with me here.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#148

Earlier quoted context omitted.

it's not like a thunder storm. The wikipedia page has a worked out example. If you can go back and forth between 2 places FTL you can arrive before you left and interfere with your departure. You are more convinced by a metaphor than the actual theory of relativity. That can't be helped.

> The wikipedia page has a worked out example. If you can go back and forth between 2 places FTL you can arrive before you left and interfere with your departure. That example has multiple assumptions that seem to make said example only relevant to a very specific case, rather than to superluminal communication in general (least of all to approaches specifically designed to avoid those assumptions): 1. Alice and Bob…

The name tachyonic antitelephone is a bit unfortunate because it need not involve tachyons. All it takes is the ability to send a message outside of your light cone. Along the path actually taken need not be the case, we are reasoning about the endpoints of the communication independent of the means.

In particular it does not matter whether you use a warp drive or not. The violation occurs relative to reference frames outside of the warp bubble where special relativity fully applies. Here, explicitly looks like a worked out example: http://exvacuo.free.fr/div/Sciences/Dossiers/Time/A%20E%20Ev...

You can create instances of FTL travel or communication that don't violate causality. But the ability to perform such FTL tricks implies the possibility of constructing a closed timelike curve so long as you're talking about a localized phenomenon like a warp drive or tachyon where special relativity holds outside of a negligible area.

If you're messing with the global geometry of spacetime then you can make very weird things happen and I would not be surprised if there were such a geometry that allows FTL communication in a limited way that doesnt allow CTCs. But that would not like our universe or a warp drive, a specifically localized situation.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#149
post #77

Earlier quoted context omitted.

To the outside observer, they would be time travelling. "Appear to" and "actually" are two very different things. A traveller with a different procession of time will appear to be going faster or slower than they really should. There are galaxies moving faster than c away from us right now.

It's a bit mindblowing to apply relativity to that. To any observer, it'll seem like they're time traveling. (any sublight observer, or just any outside observer?)

Special Relativity (the first and ironically simpler of the two, given the name) is really mind-blowing... up until the moment it isn't.

In my mind the "cascade of simplicity" occurred when I subconsciously realized that bullet-time mechanics could really occur is a multiplayer game. The player in bullet-time would experience higher tickrate that anyone else, meaning that anyone else would see them speeding away. There's more to make it possible in a simulation, but that's unimportant: you can reason about these scenarios. My reasoning maybe incorrect, but it does afford me the ability to approach these mind-blowing subjects.

Either way, it may be impossible for a subluminal observer to identify a superluminal apart from a warp traveller (aside from the former being outright impossible). The observation is identical, the cause is completely different.

Re: A new model for faster-than-light travel that uses conventional physics

#150

Earlier quoted context omitted.

> Okay, but that's the thing: from one perspective (the signal's) the signal is indeed subluminal, but from another (an observer's, e.g. the sender or recipient) it's not. So which math applies? All observers are valid. The maths answers differ due to different inputs but they apply the same formula. All should get self-consistent results, though not necessarily the same results: the idea that two events are "simulta…

> An observer moving with respect to A and B can "hack" this to produce effects before cause in their frame of reference. Again, though: how? Specifically: how would a third observer have any impact at all? He's an observer. Judging by that new Wikipedia article, the answer seems to be "well the observer will perceive events at different times from when they actually happened, and therefore two simultaneous lightning…

Can recommend again that you turn to books on this subject; Posting long rants on the internets won't get you anything. You're clearly not learning, and neither are you intellectually impressing anyone.

> get an object from A to B without any actual movement from A to B

This sentence is pure gibberish: You got from A to B in time T ... but you also didn't get from A to B in time T? Ok, whatever. You're splitting hairs about "actual movement" and again in the long and utterly incoherent text about "Alice and Bob in the Tachyonic antitelephone" moving but also not, which I can't be bothered to untangle because I'm not paid to teach people who think they already know a lot more than they really do.

Buy a book on the subject, those authors do get paid for this. This kind of posting doesn't help you learn anything.

> but from what I can tell, the math checks out fine.

I'm going to draw a line here, and I don't mind being a Jerk now, so: What the actual fuck are you talking about? In Physics, "the math" isn't a metaphor, it's math.

The math checks out? What math? There's no math here, just waffle.

The math is the real thing, as observed here https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=NbzWYjVrvpI&t=55s

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