I'm a bit mixed about this; it is clearly discriminatory to publish a job ad that says "women need not apply", but it doesn't feel inherently discriminatory to advertise a job in, say, "Men's Health" but not "Cosmopolitan" magazine. Or to advertise on a particular television channel or program (whose viewers may not match the population at large). That's just how advertising works. Is that crazy? Would this be differ…
You're telling me, if I run a clinic or rehab facility where women with trauma are more comfortable with other female therapists, I'm somehow required to advertise to and interview both men and women for a job - even when I'm only short on demand for a female therapist from a specific demographic or with certain qualifications? The same would go for a shortage of male employees based on patient or clientele requests…
No, you're not. This is a well-established area of the law, called a bona fide occupational qualification:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bona_fide_occupational_qualifi...
> One example of bona fide occupational qualifications are mandatory retirement ages for bus drivers and airline pilots, for safety reasons. Further, in advertising, a manufacturer of men's clothing may lawfully advertise for male models. Religious belief may also be considered a BFOQ; for example, a religious school may lawfully require that members of its faculty be members of that denomination, and may lawfully bar from employment anyone who is not a member. Fire departments can require firemen to be able to lift a given weight to demonstrate that they will be able to carry fire victims out of a burning building.