Earlier quoted context omitted.
> You are the one that said things are worse compared to 1932. And they are -- much worse. More incidents in an absolute sense, and more incidents per capita.
>> You are the one that said things are worse compared to 1932. > And they are -- much worse. More incidents in an absolute sense, and more incidents per capita Except that there are almost certainly fewer incidents per capita compared to 1932. 1932 was near a local maximum in terms of violence rates in the US; currently we are near a local minimum. (The current homicide rate is less than half what it was in 1932.)
No, not if a reasonable moving average is performed. And per capita modifies the logic in a way that reduces the importance of population, when my point is the size of that population.
Here's a small interval graph that shows an increase per capita since 1960:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crime_in_the_United_States#Crim...
Another graph that shows the same trend:
http://www.utahfoundation.org/img/briefs/2008_08_crime_fig4....
The above graph shows the risk of using too short a sampling interval. If you sample on the interval 1990 to the present, crime appears to have gone down. If you sample from 1960 or any longer intervals to the present, per capita crime has certainly increased.