Earlier quoted context omitted.
Am I right in thinking that if those employees save any of the money, then they accumulate wealth, but if they don't (because they don't receive enough compared to their fixed costs, or for any other reason) wealth accumulates elsewhere, probably in the hands of plutocrats?
Just because one person wastes money, it doesn't mean that someone else gets rich. If the employees spend their income on low-margin goods or services (food and clothing are quite competitive low-margin sectors with high labor costs), the money has flowed from investors mostly to laborers.
Various things could disrupt the resulting increase in inequality. The Black Death and World War 2 are both supposed to have done so.