Why not everyone assimilate? It is no longer "United States" when we split states off for special treatment for minorities. These minorities will further regress and never get out of the poor living conditions. Reservations are one of the most impoverished regions in the US. We should then probably go back to Genghis Khan times and challenge the whole Eurasia, Persian inlands and a bunch of other areas around the wor…
> Why not everyone assimilate? Recognized Native American tribes are sovereign nations . https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tribal_sovereignty_in_the_Unit... You might as well ask why European settlers aren't forced to assimilate into them.
U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
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Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#122Are all the other treaties going to be reviewed? What percentage of the USA would become reservation land if all the treaties were honored? If it was >50% would we still call them reservations?
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#123Honestly after all the Native Americans went through, give them the whole state at least. People in the United States speak and reflect often about the atrocities of slavery. We need to equally reflect on and remember the atrocities against Native Americans.
What do you mean "them"? You do realize that there were many different tribes who had very drastically different interactions with the US, right?
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#124Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Why not everyone assimilate? Recognized Native American tribes are sovereign nations . https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tribal_sovereignty_in_the_Unit... You might as well ask why European settlers aren't forced to assimilate into them.
I wonder about that. Right now, the fact that the Nations don’t have direct representation in Congress (yes, I understand citizens can vote in the state the reservation resides in) makes them appear more like subjects of an Empire than as coequals in a Republic. I think a lot about how to improve this. I think a lot about how to truly reckon with genocide and yet coexist. If anyone has resources about how to improve…
The EU doesn't have representation in Congress either
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#125Earlier quoted context omitted.
I am not from US, so i am not very clued in to this, but a State or mini-state would sound a lot better than a 'reservation'
In Canada we use the term "nation".
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#126Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#127Can someone explain why America has reservations? From what I know, Native Indians had this land almost 2+ centuries ago. Why have a special, looks like an autonomous, region and special treatment to people that are a few generations down from when this happened? How far back into the history should we go?
These rights existing because the US government signed treaties with independent foreign nations. Those treaties are valid law until the Congress withdraws from them.
Oklahoma was part of the Louisiana purchase, the US considered it their land for that reason.
The US signed treaties with the indigeneous population in an attempt to secure peace, not out of any sort of acknowledgement that they had to.
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#128As with so many controversial court rulings like the ACA mandate case, our courts keep getting put into the decision because of the massive failure that congress is. Congress should either fulfill the promise or not, or whatever. instead the judicial bodies end up making legal judgements with big ramifcations that largely should be left to the legislative body.
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#129Earlier quoted context omitted.
> Can someone explain why America has reservations? Because we signed treaties with the tribes, which are now semi-sovereign entities as a result.
That's not 'why', that's 'how'. I'm not American, so don't know the topic in details. I have found this online: " The main goals of Indian reservations were to bring Native Americans under U.S. government control, minimize conflict between Indians and settlers and encourage Native Americans to take on the ways of the white man. " [1] [1] https://www.history.com/topics/native-american-history/india...
We could certainly look at why the treaties were signed, but the original comment basically asked why we, modernly, should care.
Re: U.S. Supreme Court deems half of Oklahoma a Native American reservation
#130This ruling, as I understand it, resolves a narrow technicality—but that technicality has potentially enormous implications.
The Court has only decided that the federal [EDIT: state! sorry!] government has no prosecutorial jurisdiction against citizens of the so-called "Five Civilized Tribes" in about half of OK—this is what the press means when it calls this territory "Indian reservations." They did not decide things like: Do the tribes get the taxes from people living in Tulsa? Do non-natives have to abide by rules of the respective nations? Does the tribal government have the ability to reclaim land through land-for-trust? And so on.
Further narrowing the ruling, my understanding is that this only applies when all persons involved in the crime (e.g., the victim) are also tribal citizens.
But, this ruling does open the door to a lot of those types of questions. It is possible we see several cases related to the sovereignty of these nations over the next few years, possibly greatly expanding the scope of the jurisdiction of the tribal governments.