How could Google possibly choose not to use +1's if they use Facebook and Twitter data as ranking signals?
Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ofhwPC-5Ub4
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Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ofhwPC-5Ub4
Just trying to decide the politest way to debunk the idea that more Google +1s lead to higher Google web rankings. Let's start with correlation != causation: http://xkcd.com/552/ But it would probably be better to point to this 2011 post (also from SEOMoz/Moz) from two years ago in which a similar claim was made about Facebook shares: http://moz.com/blog/does-google-use-facebook-shares-to-influ... . From that blog po…