Earlier quoted context omitted.
The article seems to say it's random chance, based upon one linguists opinion. Doesn't at all feel right statistically. Seems more likely there would be some kind of missing link. Could someone better informed possibly figure out the odds?
>Doesn't at all feel right statistically Why not? Many unrelated languages steer towards the open syllable rule. It's basically the only similarity between Japanese and African languages. Open syllables without complex consonant clusters are easier to pronounce. Say, Proto-Slavic phonetics mostly allowed only open syllables, although its ancestor and descendants allow more complex clusters. For example, Proto-Indoeur…
As to why it felt off: identical patterns across as-yet unconnected distributions is usually an early indicator of undiscovered relation.
Your suggestion of language steering toward open syllables may well be that relationship.