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What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

quantamagazine.org

11–20 of 72 posts

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#11
post #7

Of all the incompleteness-style theorems, I find the Halting problem to be the most approachable and also the most interesting. Maybe it's because I'm a software dev that dabbles in math rather than the other way around. But that makes me wonder if all of Gödel's theorems can be stated if 'software form', so to speak.

Also check out https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rice%27s_theorem

basically generalized the halting problem to arbitrary semantic properties.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#12
As far as I can see people always radically exaggerate the effect of the incompleteness theorems. It seems interesting that any nontrivial axiomatic system has statements which are true but unprovable but to say that derails Hilbert’s project seems just obviously untrue when you can for example join math postgrad programs now which are focused on formalisation. [1] So formalisation is very much still going on, probably more so now than ever given advances in theorem provers.

Yes there are undecidable statements (eg the continuum hypothesis) but that doesn’t change the fact that the vast vast majority of statements in any axiomatic system are going to be decidable, and most undecidable statements are going to have “niche” significance like that.

[1] eg https://www.imperial.ac.uk/study/courses/postgraduate-taught...

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#13

As far as I can see people always radically exaggerate the effect of the incompleteness theorems. It seems interesting that any nontrivial axiomatic system has statements which are true but unprovable but to say that derails Hilbert’s project seems just obviously untrue when you can for example join math postgrad programs now which are focused on formalisation. [1] So formalisation is very much still going on, probab…

Proof by contradiction requires finding a single contradiction. Practical utility just requires that contradiction be infrequent enough.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#15

As far as I can see people always radically exaggerate the effect of the incompleteness theorems. It seems interesting that any nontrivial axiomatic system has statements which are true but unprovable but to say that derails Hilbert’s project seems just obviously untrue when you can for example join math postgrad programs now which are focused on formalisation. [1] So formalisation is very much still going on, probab…

This is more like the popular lay take that are more or less confused about the meaning and implications of the theorems. The fact is that the implications are real yet more nuanced than this - something the article touched on.

Hilbert’s program was to reduce math to a finite set of axioms and was indeed derailed by incompleteness theorems(Gödel) and undecidability (Church, Turing).

Formalizing math with automated theorem provers has little to do with the goal of Hilbert program. Also they aren’t related to the foundational research that it entailed.

Also, as the article mentions, the implications as well as Gödel was largely misunderstood.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#16

As far as I can see people always radically exaggerate the effect of the incompleteness theorems. It seems interesting that any nontrivial axiomatic system has statements which are true but unprovable but to say that derails Hilbert’s project seems just obviously untrue when you can for example join math postgrad programs now which are focused on formalisation. [1] So formalisation is very much still going on, probab…

We really want to believe that we can understand everything, yet we know we cannot.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#17
It's much easier than it seems.

* There are axioms, there are models, and there are theorems.

* A model is a particular structure with objects and relationships. The "standard model of arithmetic" is just the natural numbers 0, 1, 2, ... with normal rules of addition and subtraction and so on. A different model could be the real numbers, or one that includes infinitesimally small numbers, or so on.

* A set of axioms are rules about how a model can work. For example, we can have an axiom for any set of objects called "numbers" with an operation called "addition" that the operation must be commutative (x+y = y+x). The standard model above is one model that satisfies this axiom.

* A theorem is a fact that can be true or false about a given model. For example, "the model has infinitely many objects." If we can prove a theorem from a set of axioms, then that theorem is true for every model that satisfies the axioms. However, there can also be theorems that are true for one model that satisfies the axioms but false for a different model.

Godel's completeness theorem says that if a theorem is true for every model that satisfies a set of axioms, then one can prove that theorem from the axioms.

Godel's first incompleteness theorem says that in any axiomatic system (sufficiently complex) there are theorems that are neither always true nor always false. In other words, there is a theorem that is true for some model of the axioms but false for some other model of the axioms.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#18

As far as I can see people always radically exaggerate the effect of the incompleteness theorems. It seems interesting that any nontrivial axiomatic system has statements which are true but unprovable but to say that derails Hilbert’s project seems just obviously untrue when you can for example join math postgrad programs now which are focused on formalisation. [1] So formalisation is very much still going on, probab…

At the same time if you imagine a machine that can associate different maths. Would said machine encounter undecidable statements more frequently?

Would the rules of said machine have statements they themselves cannot prove by parameters set in their ‘programmed(by humans, machines, or other machines)’ assumptions?

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#19
post #17

It's much easier than it seems. * There are axioms, there are models, and there are theorems. * A model is a particular structure with objects and relationships. The "standard model of arithmetic" is just the natural numbers 0, 1, 2, ... with normal rules of addition and subtraction and so on. A different model could be the real numbers, or one that includes infinitesimally small numbers, or so on. * A set of axioms…

That is interesting, I always thought that the incompleteness theorems says, there are theorems that are true or false in all models but cannot be proved to be so. But if it that is not the case and there always exist models where the theorem is true and false, that makes it sound to me, like the incompleteness theorem is not really about proving things. With that it sounds more like the inability of a sufficiently complex set of axioms to only admit isomorphic models, i.e. have all possible models agree on all expressible theorems. Makes the entire thing sound almost trivial, of course you can not prove what does not follow from the axioms.

Re: What Do Gödel's Incompleteness Theorems Mean?

#20
post #11
post #7

Of all the incompleteness-style theorems, I find the Halting problem to be the most approachable and also the most interesting. Maybe it's because I'm a software dev that dabbles in math rather than the other way around. But that makes me wonder if all of Gödel's theorems can be stated if 'software form', so to speak.

Also check out https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rice%27s_theorem basically generalized the halting problem to arbitrary semantic properties.

It's convenient that Henry Rice lived long before the age of language cults. I don't even think Rice wrote software, he's just a mathematician, he proved this nice property in mathematics. Stuff like FORTRAN and ALGOL happens later.

Also though, just as for the Halting Problem, we are always allowed a three-way split. Rice proves that "Has property" vs "Does not have property" can't be done, but "Has property" vs "Does not have property" vs "Shrug - I dunno, seems hard" is possible, and indeed easy if you're OK with lots of machines landing in the "Shrug" pile. You can expend as much work as you like to shrink that pile, Rice just proved it would need infinite work to empty it completely.

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