Could it be a case of "unwanted fallacy"? (bear with me)
I mean:
At almost any point in time, when fascists are NOT in power, it's because they were, one way or another, stopped.
The logic would be: fascism is a systematic/automatic force that wants to seize power, usually by basing its ideology on anti-intellectualism, glorified past, enemies of the nation that must be eliminated/deported, imperialist motives (conquest, war, etc.).
This systematic force always exists. It always exists because there are always people who wants to dominate, oppress, express violence against this or that group of people.
Therefore, the few times fascists reached power in any country around the world it's because of a combination of factors and that's what we KNOW about.
For instance, this movement https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boulangisme never reached power. BUT it for sure planted the seeds of future hatred, extreme nationalism, etc. and they were VERY determined to take the power, and they didn't. But we don't 'count' it as "fascism that was stopped" because there was no clear, obvious, big event that we can pinpoint as fascists being stopped.