> has not sold any JavaScript goods or rendered any JavaScript services since acquiring the trademark from Sun Microsystems in 2009. I find this hard to believe. Somewhere in the 159,000 employees of Oracle, someone has made and sold some product using the javascript brand. Just a single example of "Javascript" written on a spec sheet of some product would be enough to defend the trademark.
Is that really true? Doesn’t it have to be used as a trademark? If they just mention the programming language in generic terms rather than as something specifically owned and sold by Oracle, would that really be enough? That’s exactly what you would expect from a generic term - that it would be used generically.