Isn't that Edwin T. Jaynes example just p-hacking? If only 1 out of 100 experiments produces a statistically significant result, and you only report the one, I would intuitively consider that evidence to be worth less. Can someone more versed in Bayesian statistics better explain the example?
I think the author means to say that it’s two methods incidentally equivalent in the data they collect that may draw different conclusions based on their initial assumptions. Question is how do you make coherent sense of it.
At level 1 depth it’s insightful.
At level 2 depth it’s a straw man.
At level 3 depth, just keep drinking until you’re back at level 1 depth.